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Problem
Consider the operator \hat{C} which satisfies the property that \hat{C} \phi (x) = \phi ^ * (x). Is \hat{C} Hermitian? What are the eigenfunctions and eigenvalues of \hat{C}?
Solution
We have
\hat{C} \phi = \phi ^ *
\iff \phi^* \hat{C}^\dagger = \phi
Substituting back into the first equation,
\hat{C} (\phi^* \hat{C}^\dagger) = \phi ^ * = \hat{C} \phi
\iff (\hat{C} \phi)(\hat{C} - I) = 0
Now, we know that \hat{C} \phi \neq 0, since (we assume that) \phi isn't zero... if \hat{C} = 0, then the original property that \hat{C} satisfied couldn't possibly be true. Thus, we have that \hat{C} = I, which is clearly Hermitian.
Since \hat{C} is just the identity operator, we know that all functions are the eigenfunctions of \hat{C} and the only eigenvalue of \hat{C} is 1.
Could someone verify that the above is true? It seems too simple =/
Consider the operator \hat{C} which satisfies the property that \hat{C} \phi (x) = \phi ^ * (x). Is \hat{C} Hermitian? What are the eigenfunctions and eigenvalues of \hat{C}?
Solution
We have
\hat{C} \phi = \phi ^ *
\iff \phi^* \hat{C}^\dagger = \phi
Substituting back into the first equation,
\hat{C} (\phi^* \hat{C}^\dagger) = \phi ^ * = \hat{C} \phi
\iff (\hat{C} \phi)(\hat{C} - I) = 0
Now, we know that \hat{C} \phi \neq 0, since (we assume that) \phi isn't zero... if \hat{C} = 0, then the original property that \hat{C} satisfied couldn't possibly be true. Thus, we have that \hat{C} = I, which is clearly Hermitian.
Since \hat{C} is just the identity operator, we know that all functions are the eigenfunctions of \hat{C} and the only eigenvalue of \hat{C} is 1.
Could someone verify that the above is true? It seems too simple =/