Is the subset G totally bounded? - Proving or disproving using relevant theorems

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Homework Statement


Let G = { f \in C[0,1] : ^{0}_{1}\int|f(x)|dx \leq 1 }
Endowed with the metric d(f,h) = ^{0}_{1}\int|f(x)-h(x)|dx. Is G totally bounded? Prove or provide counterexample

2. Relevant Theorems

Arzela-Ascoli Theorem, Theorems relating to compactness, equicontinuity etc and

Let M be a compact metric space. A subset of
C(M) is totally bounded iff it is bounded and equicontinuous. (in terms of the sup metric)

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm not to sure whether G is totally bounded or not to begin with. If I was working in the sup metric the subset is not totally bounded as I can find a family of functions which are not equicontinuous in G. However I'm not sure how or if this translates to the integral metric defined above. Any help would be much appreciated!
 
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Try to find a sequence of functions f_i(x) such that d(f_i,f_j)=1 for all i \ne j. Step functions will do. What would that tell you about total boundedness?
 
Such a sequence could not be totally bounded since if I took a finite cover of the space with balls radius say half then each function in the sequence must be in a separate ball and as the sequence is infinite this leads to a contradiction. But I can't think of a sequence functions that are continuous on [0,1] with this property?
 
Eulogy said:
Such a sequence could not be totally bounded since if I took a finite cover of the space with balls radius say half then each function in the sequence must be in a separate ball and as the sequence is infinite this leads to a contradiction. But I can't think of a sequence functions that are continuous on [0,1] with this property?

Can you think of a way to define f1 so that it's integral is 1/2, but it is only nonzero on [1/2,1]. Same thing for f2 but it is only nonzero on [1/4,1/2], put f3 on [1/8,1/4] etc.
 
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Yeah just figured it out thanks for your help!
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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