nassboy said:
I've seen in feynman and on the internet a derivation that the force on a negatively charged particle from neutral current carrying wire can be shown to be purely magnetostatic in one frame of reference and purely electrostatic in the other frame of reference using the length contraction. The contracted wire has a net positive charge, and therefore attracts the negatively charged particle.
I've tried to extend this idea to two current carrying wires(the direction of the current the same in both wires)...but it seems that they both would have positive charge and repel when they should attract.
What am I doing wrong?
Nassboy...
You are failing to take into account the Magnetic fields, in particular
the DIRECTION of each B field around each wire.This is the same mistake 'meemoe_uk' was making in a previous thread, (except he would never admit it).
Remember the purpose of that exercise is to derive
the MAGNETIC FIELD around the wire...
The
DIRECTION of that field around each wire
DETERMINES the direction of the force (in the lab frame) on a test charge or upon ANOTHER CURRENT A CARRYING WIRE according to the Lorentz force equation (below)...
F = qv X B (for point charges) (B = mag.field; q = test charge with velocity v outside the wire)
F = Integral ( IL X B) ...( for wires) (where L = length of wire, I = current)
(Your link doesn't point that out very well).
Remember these are the forces YOU as the observer sees in the lab frame.
(Actually, the full Lorentz equaton is
F = qE + (qv X B)...but the electric field E is zero in the lab frame since the each wire is electrically neutral in labe frame).
And remember its the
'right hand rule' that determine the
direction of the force.
See here for a little more:
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/magnetic/magfor.html
Creator
P.S. the link you cited is not a very great explanation since it arrived at the "magnetic force" (eqn. # 3) in somewhat non traditional form...and without the Lorentz force eqn. you cannot see in which direction that force is acting.
However, you will see that the mag. force eqn. (equation # 3 in your link) is the same as my equation above because the term in the parenthesis is simply equal to B...IOW, simply substitute
B = uI / 2(pi)R (Ampere's law) for the term in parenthesis and you will recover Lorentz force equation I gave above.)
see:
http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/HBASE/magnetic/magcur.html