Is the Wave Function Real? Evidence from the Frankenstein Photon Experiment

  • #51
SpectraCat said:
So all this just moves the discussion to being about the reality of the path-integrals. Perhaps this is worthwhile ... I guess no one would dispute the reality of the paths themselves, since they are physical trajectories in space and time.

This is pretty much the path I am on and hoping to consider. And sincerely, I realize the line between semantics and meaning is razor thin on this one.

If the WF/path is real, then a lot of additional things must be true. For example, a free photon in space that eventually hits my eye must have its WF still propagating in space long after it hits my eye.
 
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  • #52
So I am asking, if you are a believer of MWI for example (which of course you are not): how does all this splitting and mixing and matching go on and the entanglement can be restored? How does the universe know not to split because we are going to put everything back together again when we are finished with the manipulations? You don't think that might be a tall order for that interpretation?

But MWI just assumes that the formalism of quantum mechanics works as usual without invoking a real collapse of the wavefunction after a measurement. It is only that the effective collapse can be pictured as if the universe splits.
 
  • #53
SpectraCat said:
That last part seems like semantics ... AFAIK the path integral approach is formally equivalent to solving the Schrodinger equation in the normal way. Also, there are certainly wave-like entities involved in the path integral approach, since each individual path is represented by an amplitude times a complex exponential of the classical action. So, while it may be strictly true that the path integral doesn't involve the wave function as we usually think about it, it does involve wave-like entities.

So all this just moves the discussion to being about the reality of the path-integrals. Perhaps this is worthwhile ... I guess no one would dispute the reality of the paths themselves, since they are physical trajectories in space and time. Furthermore, the classical action along a given path also seems like a real thing, since it is just a time integral over the kinetic and potential energies along that path. Still, I guess that doesn't answer the question of how "real" the path integrals themselves are. They certainly seem real to me though, for all the same reasons that the wave-functions do. I guess that is what I meant when I said it seems like you are drawing a semantic distinction.

One doesn't have to view the path integral Z as involving paths (in configuration space or spacetime). Typically, one sees it explained using paths (thus the name), but that's just a convenient way of ordering all possible values of the integration variable (typically evaluated from -infinity to infinity). One can rather view Z as providing a measure of the symmetry of that part of the integrand stripped of the integration variable (we call it the actional). That's why we call Z the symmetry amplitude in RBW instead of the transition amplitude. And, again, there are no quantum entities represented in the actional -- just the experimental equipment.
 
  • #54
DrChinese said:
My question has to do with the idea that state has to do with knowledge of the system. I think the state is an accurate and complete description of the system.
In that case I guess I just don't understand the argument. Everyone already agrees that the wavefunction describes the system immediately after a measurement, so what you're getting at must be that it does so at all times. I don't see anything in your argument that we can use to reach that conclusion.

Maybe you're arguing for something else entirely. If you're arguing against the state vector being a representation of our "knowledge" of the system, I think the argument would have to start with an explanation of what that means. Personally, I don't think it makes sense to argue against that particular flavor of the CI, because it's so ill-defined and so poorly explained by its proponents that there's nothing to refute.
 
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  • #55
DrChinese said:
2. If it can be recombined, I guess I would say that collapse is NOT an irreversible process. At least not at the point that the WF is split, so it would need to be later - when the complete final context has been determined.
In my opinion, the collapse is a vague and obsolete concept. A modern much better defined concept that to a large extent replaces the concept of collapse is - decoherence. Decoherence is reversible in principle, but irreversible in practice because decoherence occurs when the system interacts with a LARGE number of environment degrees of freedom. When the wave can be recombined (in practice), it simply means that decoherence has not happened before the recombination.

So, does it say anything about reality of the wave function? Well, certainly not directly. Nevertheless, most physicists working with decoherence like to think in terms of some variant of the "many-world" interpretation, in which the wave function is thought of as something "real". Bohmians also can be counted as belonging to this camp, as Bohmian interpretation can also be thought of as a variant of the "many-world" interpretation.
 
  • #56
Fredrik said:
In that case I guess I just don't understand the argument. Everyone already agrees that the wavefunction describes the system immediately after a measurement, so what you're getting at must be that it does so at all times. I don't see anything in your argument that we can use to reach that conclusion.

Maybe you're arguing for something else entirely. If you're arguing against the state vector being a representation of our "knowledge" of the system, I think the argument would have to start with an explanation of what that means. Personally, I don't think it makes sense to argue against that particular flavor of the CI, because it's so ill-defined and so poorly explained by its proponents that there's nothing to refute.

Fredrik, thanks for your comments.-DrC
 
  • #57
Demystifier said:
In my opinion, the collapse is a vague and obsolete concept. A modern much better defined concept that to a large extent replaces the concept of collapse is - decoherence. Decoherence is reversible in principle, but irreversible in practice because decoherence occurs when the system interacts with a LARGE number of environment degrees of freedom. When the wave can be recombined (in practice), it simply means that decoherence has not happened before the recombination.

So, does it say anything about reality of the wave function? Well, certainly not directly. Nevertheless, most physicists working with decoherence like to think in terms of some variant of the "many-world" interpretation, in which the wave function is thought of as something "real". Bohmians also can be counted as belonging to this camp, as Bohmian interpretation can also be thought of as a variant of the "many-world" interpretation.

Demystifier, thanks for your comments as well. I know the question was a bit ambiguous, I was curious to see what others thoughts in this area might be.

I still can't get around the idea that: A particle's WF expands in free space even after a particle is detected. (It would do this because there are still path alternatives in existence.) It seems like any point in open space would have a large number of these alternative paths coming through. And that would lead to physically detectible effects of some sort. Or maybe not. :smile: I know I'm rambling... maybe I had too much coffee this morning.
 
  • #58
Interesting thread. I operate under the assumption of an ontic wavefunction. I also agree with RUTA that these frankenstein particles don't actually provide an empirical distinction that circumvents prior arguments. However, I am impressed with its potential to articulate the distinctions between these opposing viewpoints.

Dmitry67 said:
No, because in deterministic interpretations there is no 'probability' - at all.

In principle yes, in practice 'probability' is unavoidable in the formalism. Even classical thermodynamics unavoidably relies on 'probability' in the formalism. Even a basic dice role can only be predicted by probability. My personal sense, given my assumptions, is that the wavefunction is an amalgamation of both ontic and epistemic elements. In the dice case an ensemble can be trivially decomposed into real and epistemic parts. In the wavefunction case even our notions of what constitutes a fundamental physical property fails to maintain a distinct identity like dice, as if the realness we empirically percieve in the things around us are epistemic rather than ontic. The only class of theories I know to get around this considers measured properties as emergent, rather than inate.

Local theories that maintain local realism and escape both the Bell and Kochen-Specker Theorems exploit contextuality. Consider how we operationally define Einstein Realism in the context of BI. In essense we take some measurable value, often labeled Alice and Bob, and use them as a proxy for ontic values. Thus any localy realistic theory that doesn't violate these theorems must contextualize these measured values as emergent global properties of an underlying physics. This seems to imply that the wavefunction is, at least in part, a real wave of some sort, with emergent properties we measure and mistakenly assume are inate to the ontic parts. Relational QM is predicated on a similar viewpoint. A lot of abstract models have been formulated in an attempt to demonstrate feasibility, but to date no such model uniquely or fully recovers the formalism of QM.

Although this approach to circumventing the no-go theorems works in principle, it hasn't been demonstrated to be feasible to empirically replicate QFT. Thus my presumptions are just that, presumptions. Yet any argument that attempts to articulate a case for the wavefunction being real is of interest.

Here's the objection I would pose to RUTA's argument. It's true we don't have to view the path integral Z as involving paths, but this presumes the variable we associate with the path is itself not an ontic entity. Fair enough, as this so far would be true for both CI and the contextual relational interpretation mentioned above. Yet what is implied by presuming no ontic entities are involved in defining these properties? It implies that none of the everyday things we interact with are fundamentally ontic in nature. Most of us I presume reject this right or wrong, but once we reject epistemic properties without ontic elements of some sort to define them how do we then reconcile certain physical variables not requiring them. It seems silly to presume that certain physical properties lack an ontic basis at some level yet still cling to the notion that our everyday world contains ontic entities.

Now certainly there exist many variables that merely encode our state of knowledge, thus require no ontic basis in and of themselves. Yet, if we presume the Universe has an ontic basis, even these variables have ontic underpinnings as some state of knowledge about the ontic elements. Now if we try to maintain an ontic Universe while avoiding any ontic realness contained in the wavefunction, this is only possible by professing ignorance of where the ontic elements are contained, which we are if they exist. Furthermore, any objection to the assumption that the wavefunction has real elements depends on our ignorance to merely claim that we don't have to consider variable X real, which is true, but X can be moved to whatever argument is being made, such as the path integral. Thus it becomes an argument from ignorance. CI requires this very real ignorance to justify moving the goal post at will to maintain cogency without explicitly rejecting the Universe has ontic underpinnings.

It is my opinion that in order to avoid ontic realness associated with the wavefunction at any level requires assuming the Universe or any part of it needs no ontic basis. As a personal preference I'm betting the wavefunction contains real components of some sort, even if no particular variable we use to describe it is explicitly ontic in itself.
 
  • #59
The very word 'real' is ill-defined.
There is a very good example: BM (Bohmian Interpretation). In BM,there are 2 'real' components: wavefunction (exactly the same as in MWI, with all 'parralel' worlds) and hidden particles guided by this wave.

However, in BM only waves with particles inside (non-empty waves) form what we call reality. If we see a dead cat, then there is definitely a wave of alive one. It is real, but not tagged with particles (which can not be detected!) and hence don't form the reality.

What do you call 'real'?
 
  • #60
DrChinese said:
I still can't get around the idea that: A particle's WF expands in free space even after a particle is detected. (It would do this because there are still path alternatives in existence.) It seems like any point in open space would have a large number of these alternative paths coming through. And that would lead to physically detectible effects of some sort. Or maybe not. :smile: I know I'm rambling... maybe I had too much coffee this morning.
I am trying to get hold of this question of yours but it does not make much sense for me.
However this comment gives me an idea. Do you consider that requirement for "reality" of wavefunction is "reality" of superposition? Meaning that particles can exist in more than one place before measurement.
If that is so then I can try to defend position that wavefunction is not "real" or even pilot-wave is not "real".
 
  • #61
Sometimes we can not even isolate 'pure' objects and have to deal with the superposition. Electron may be a lucky exception.

But take proton: (uud). What color is quark d? What we call a proton is actually a superposition of uud having all possible combinations of colors.
 
  • #62
DrChinese said:
I still can't get around the idea that: A particle's WF expands in free space even after a particle is detected.
What is so strange about it? Isn't the case of quantum non-demolition measurement a clear and well-known example of this?
 
  • #63
DrChinese said:
It seems like any point in open space would have a large number of these alternative paths coming through.
Oh, perhaps now I see what your problem is. No, the particle does not have a number of alternatives at any point IN SPACE (where "space" means - the 3-dimensional space), simply because the wave function does not live in (this) space. Instead, since the particle is entangled with the environment (because without such an entanglement there would be no decoherence, measurement, or effective "collapse"), the wave function lives in the MULTI-DIMENSIONAL CONFIGURATION space. That's the space in which the alternatives live.
 
  • #64
Demystifier said:
Oh, perhaps now I see what your problem is. No, the particle does not have a number of alternatives at any point IN SPACE (where "space" means - the 3-dimensional space), simply because the wave function does not live in (this) space. Instead, since the particle is entangled with the environment (because without such an entanglement there would be no decoherence, measurement, or effective "collapse"), the wave function lives in the MULTI-DIMENSIONAL CONFIGURATION space. That's the space in which the alternatives live.



Still there must be a correspondence between wavefunctions in configuration space and 3D space. Otherwise, why do we get precise predictions with the SE?

It seems to me the problem lies more with the definition of 3D space. If we do away with it, the MWI takes care of the correspondence in a neat fashion. The 3D problem seems to me to be related more to biology than with physics. This of course is a position assuming the MWI as a starting point.
 
  • #65
mooglue said:
I think everyone can at least agree that a wavefunction the square of the probability density for a given system. Would you say "probability" is real? It's not something tangible, but it does carry tangible information. I think that if you can argue that a probability distribution is a real thing, then you can possibly consider the wave function real.
I would say that probability is not real because "parallel" probabilities do not interact in physical sense.
 
  • #66
GeorgCantor said:
Still there must be a correspondence between wavefunctions in configuration space and 3D space. Otherwise, why do we get precise predictions with the SE?
Of course there is a correspondence. The wave function gives probabilities of particle positions (or, according to BI, guides continuous and deterministic changes of these positions) in the ordinary 3D space. The fact that particles live in a space which is only 3-dimensional is compensated by the fact that there is many (entangled) particles. By contrast, the wave function is only one.
 
  • #67
Dmitry67 said:
The very word 'real' is ill-defined.
There is a very good example: BM (Bohmian Interpretation). In BM,there are 2 'real' components: wavefunction (exactly the same as in MWI, with all 'parralel' worlds) and hidden particles guided by this wave.

However, in BM only waves with particles inside (non-empty waves) form what we call reality. If we see a dead cat, then there is definitely a wave of alive one. It is real, but not tagged with particles (which can not be detected!) and hence don't form the reality.

What do you call 'real'?

Agreed, real is fought with issues. In the sense I used it here it's ontic, like the particles tucked in the waves in your BM description. I have some difficulty with the BM wave as you've described. This live cat wave has empirical consequences when associated with the cat particles, then loses all empirical meaning when the cat dies even though its existence remains. Almost sounds like a justification for ghosts, if you kept some level of empirical meaning to it. Meanwhile, the cat died and gained a separate concurrently existing dead cat wave from where?

What determines a coupling between a wave and the particles, the location of the particle relative to the waveform? In my reading of BM I didn't get quiet this picture of the wavefunction, but obviously attaching the notion of 'real' to the wavefunction and having it push around particles accordingly isn't going to run into direct empirical falsification. It still seems to me that these BM waves are ad hoc imaginative conveniences, specially crafted so as not to provide any new empirical content.

I have nothing against interpretive or metatheories as such, but I don't see their usefulness as singularly justified metatheories. Rather, as a group of all viable metatheories, they help define a space of viable possibilities which might in part potentially be useful in extending the empirical content of QM itself. Much like the no-go theorems help define what is not viable. For their own sake they seem pretty worthless to me.
 
  • #68
DrChinese said:
It is sometimes said that wave functions are not real, and simply represent the observer's knowledge of the system. I would like to comment against this point by presenting an experimental setup which would tend to indicate that the wave function is quite real. As far as I know, this setup per se has never been executed (although I am hoping someone might recognize it as something which has been).

To follow the setup, you should be familiar with the following experiment:

Bell inequalities and quantum mechanics, J. H. Eberly (2001)

See Figure 1, the Bell analyzer loop, in which a beam is split into H and V components. Those are then recombined so that the H/V information is erased, leaving a beam with the same properties as it was originally.

So if you took a pair of entangled particles, Alice and Bob, and ran each through a Bell analyzer loop, the recombined Alice and Bob are still entangled. This is what the above paper is saying.

---------------------

Here is my twist:

Frankenstein photons:
=====================

Split Alice into Alice-H and Alice-V. Split Bob into Bob-H and Bob-V. Now recombine Alice-H with Bob-V (which is identical to Alice-V). Recombine Bob-H with Alice-V (likewise identical to Bob-V). You will now have 2 Frankenstein photons that are polarization entangled!

Now, if the above is accurate (I don't see how it could be expected to be otherwise), then you would have to admit that you are mixing the wave functions of different photons to obtain an effect that clearly does not occur with either portion of the component wave functions alone.

So I conclude that the wave function is quite real. Your thoughts?

Let us pause for a moment to remind ourselves what we do know about the "wave function", which is more often a "state vector" \left| \psi \right\rangle.
a) It is defined in a linear vector space: \left| \psi \right\rangle = \sum {\left| {\varphi _k } \right\rangle } \left\langle {{\varphi _k }}<br /> \mathrel{\left | {\vphantom {{\varphi _k } \psi }}<br /> \right. \kern-\nulldelimiterspace}<br /> {\psi } \right\rangle where the basis vectors \left| {\varphi _k } \right\rangle are the eigenvectors of the observable \hat A$ that is being measured. \hat A\left| {\varphi _k } \right\rangle = a_k \left| {\varphi _k } \right\rangle.
b) The only "interpretation" that has universal acceptance is the Born postulate: The probability of obtaining the value a_k is P_k = \left| {\left\langle {{\varphi _k }}<br /> \mathrel{\left | {\vphantom {{\varphi _k } \psi }}<br /> \right. \kern-\nulldelimiterspace}<br /> {\psi } \right\rangle } \right|^2.
c) The state vector describes an experiment designed to measure the observable \hat A. The state vector is determined by the entire experimental arrangement, including the measuring device and the measurement result. Its specific mathematical form is determined by the observable being measured.
d) The state vector satisfies the Schrodinger equation: i\hbar \partial \left| \psi \right\rangle /\partial t = \hat H\left| \psi \right\rangle.
Thus, the state vector is necessarily complex.
The formalism does not require that \left| \psi \right\rangle be "real". In fact, it is silent on the matter. Hence, our present conundrum. The real elements of classical physics are particles and waves which make up all things in the mechanical universe of Newton and Einstein. All (real) things exist in the space-time continuum. Real particles and real waves propagate in 3-space where they interact with detectors designed to measure physical properties possessed by them.
There is no evidence of any kind that state vectors are real in the classical sense. If they are real, then we should be able to design an experiment to detect them. But what are the properties possessed by state vectors that are measureable? We have no idea how to construct a state vector detector. And no one has ever observed state vectors propagating through 3-space, or collapsing, or interacting with any kind of detector known to us. Also, the Eberly paper cited in the OP, yields a contradiction. Its approach assumes a classical-like sequence of events, which does not give the correct quantum results.
So, what is the wavefunction? We only know that it is a mathematical construct used to calculate probabilities. There is no theoretical or experimental evidence that it is anything more!
Dr Chineses asks if the quantum wave function is real. I don't know, but I doubt if they are. I can only give him my own bias on such matters: I am immediately suspicious of anything that cannot be verified experimentally.
Best wishes
 
  • #69
Whats about first moments from the Big Bang when it was too hot to form any system with stable internal state - so no measurement devices, in principle, could exist?

I believe defining wavefunction in a semi-classical context (observables, Born rule, experiments and measurements) comes from Bohr era. It is very important historically, but it is time to leave it behind.
 
  • #70
I read RUTA's paper "http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/archive/00003247/" ". Very interesting, and gives me a greater perspective of RUTA's perspective here.

This got me to thinking about this question of wavefunction realism both in historical context and a range of other physical parameters. Even Newton had his detractors, most notably wrt gravity, based on the lack of a mechanistic explanation. This was a prime motivation behind the classical ether, even though the empirical absurdities should have effectively killed it even before relativity. With relativity based in kinematics the limit speed C became the de facto proxy for maintaining causality. Yet many remained dissatisfied with the unspecified causal mechanism in pure kinematics. With QM it became even more difficult to maintain this brand of natural philosophy.

The point here is that our questions of realism, wrt to the wavefunction in this case, at some level still points to our predisposition toward real causal actors to underpin dynamics. I think we should continue asking these questions, so long as a priori demands of truth are avoided, like some of the aetherist that are not too uncommon here.

If we consider realism in terms of other phenomena, such as curvature of spacetime, virtual particles, etc., then Frankenstein particles are not so unique. Of course the ontology attached to realness can vary greatly in these cases, and even in various opinions about these cases. Can DrChinese's argument make the case that the wavefuntion has same level of realism as a vacuum? Physically valid or not, these kinds of questions can help define constraints and sort possibly valid solutions that are generally difficult to analyze.
 
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  • #71
DrChinese said:
So I conclude that the wave function is quite real. Your thoughts?

If I were a philosopher, I would start like this: Please define real & reality.
(but I’m just a rambling layman, so I jump right-on the interesting stuff)

Great 'Frankenstein-gadget' you got there DrC! I’m curious and do have questions:


1) I’ve quickly read the Eberly paper, and understood < 50% :smile:, but I must ask about your "polarizing beam splitter". In the paper Eberly describe the "Analyzer loop", as "Calcite analyzer" + "Reversed analyzer", and you have only 'one part' – the polarizing beam splitter? Wouldn’t that count as 'measurement' on Alice & Bob, 'destroying' the wavefunction/entanglement? If we compare with the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed_choice_quantum_eraser" the interference pattern is lost if we don’t apply another beam splitter to join the (virtual) paths of the photon:

2mxr9ki.png

300px-Beam_Split_and_fuse.svg.png

Wikipedia - Delayed choice quantum eraser
In the two diagrams to the right a single photon is emitted at the yellow star, passes through a 50% beam splitter (green block) that reflects 1/2 of the photons, and travels along two possible paths, depicted by the red or blue lines.

In the top diagram, one can see that the trajectories of photons are clearly known — in the sense that if a photon emerges at the top of the apparatus it appears that it had to have come by the path that leads to that point (blue line), and if it emerges at the side of the apparatus it appears that it had to have come by way of the other path (red line).

Next, as shown in the bottom diagram: a second beam splitter is introduced at the top right. It can direct either beam towards either path; thus note that whatever emerges from each exit port may have come by way of either path.

It is in this sense that the path information has been "erased."


2) If the 'Frankenstein-gadget' can handle the above: Would that mean that Chris & Dale are entangled both with themselves and each other? (Cool!)

I stop here and get back on the "Real stuff" later...


P.S. You didn’t collaborate with this guy, did you?
[PLAIN]http://middlezonemusings.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/03/abby-normal.jpg
 
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  • #72
DevilsAvocado said:
Great 'Frankenstein-gadget' you got there DrC! I’m curious and do have questions:


1) I’ve quickly read the Eberly paper, and understood < 50% :smile:, but I must ask about your "polarizing beam splitter". In the paper Eberly describe the "Analyzer loop", as "Calcite analyzer" + "Reversed analyzer", and you have only 'one part' – the polarizing beam splitter? Wouldn’t that count as 'measurement' on Alice & Bob, 'destroying' the wavefunction/entanglement? If we compare with the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Delayed_choice_quantum_eraser" the interference pattern is lost if we don’t apply another beam splitter to join the (virtual) paths of the photon:

2mxr9ki.png

300px-Beam_Split_and_fuse.svg.png



[/PLAIN]

Why, yes, you are absolutely correct! I did indeed intend to represent the reverse components which would be needed to properly execute this. I guess I had realized that there might be several ways to accomplish this in practice, and failed to designate anything for handling this function. To be consistent with the reference, I should have placed the additional items in the diagram. I will see if I can upload something a bit tidier.

Thanks for pointing this out!
 
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  • #73
Here is some background, by the way, on which Eberly based his paper.

From French & Taylor, An Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, 1979:
 

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  • #74
Ok, here is an updated diagram, I hope this is a little better:

Creating Entangled "Frankenstein" Photons: Is this Possible?
 

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  • #75
DrChinese said:
Ok, here is an updated diagram, I hope this is a little better:

Creating Entangled "Frankenstein" Photons: Is this Possible?

This looks much better! You know I’m basically 'guessing' here, but there is still one thing that might be a little 'troublesome'... and that’s polarizing in "polarizing beam splitter"...

I have no idea if this is correct – but my understanding of entangled photons is that the spin "of the pair" is actually null or nothing – it’s first when we do a measurement that a V/H spin is 'established'... Where did I read or hear this... I must check it out...?

But if the Eberly paper is correct, and if he runs the "polarizing beam splitter" with preserved entanglement, then your 'Frankenstein particles' must also work!

And if so – I think this is really amazing! If this works, it must lead to new possibilities in BTE!

Would be real interesting to hear what RUTA has to say about the technical validity of your 'Frankenstein-gadget'?


Edit1: I think I got it – you 'erase' the V/H spin in the "Reverse PBS" and THAT’S IT!


Edit2: But then the question arise – is there anything left of Alice & Bob's 'identity' after PBS...??
 
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  • #76
DevilsAvocado said:
Would be real interesting to hear what RUTA has to say about the technical validity of your 'Frankenstein-gadget'?


Edit1: I think I got it – you 'erase' the V/H spin in the "Reverse PBS" and THAT’S IT!



Yup, the round trip would restore the original state and then the measurement results would be erased. Pretty fascinating, isn't it? In real life, I think you have to do things to preserve phase in the process or else there is destructive interference. (Not entirely certain though.)
 
  • #77
DrChinese said:
Pretty fascinating, isn't it?
I almost fell of my chair realizing this... I have had a thought in the back of my head in starting a new thread that would deal with the 'synchronization' of Alice & Bob (hoping to get around the interpretation business)... and here we have 'two ends' of an entanglement TOGETHER!?

What on Earth will happen if you run Chris thru another polarizing beam splitter?? This must settle the properties for 'two ends' of an entanglement INSTANTANEOUSLY??

... amazing ...
 
  • #78
For some reason it makes me think of the holographic process when reading about the interferometer. Even our visual sight is based on two separate light paths.

I also was wondering how one splits what isn't? I'm not trying to play semantics. I understand the formalism, it's the wording that seems to cause confusion. Since the photon is 'energy' isn't polarization an induced magnetic state? If the photon is treated in that regard as a magnetic state then the polarization is just changing the electrical signature of the photons? and the entanglement is the shared magnetic state? although it would have to be a monopole right? odd bugger this energy signature.
 
  • #79
If the wavefunction is not real, then how do we explain this?

[PLAIN]http://www.sciencefriday.com/images/shows/2004/073004/AfsharExperimentSmall.jpg
 
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