Is This A Correct/Sufficient Proof

  • Thread starter Thread starter Sylvester Sly
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Proof
AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving which is greater between cos(sin(x)) and sin(cos(x)). Participants critique the initial proof attempt, noting a fundamental error in assuming f(g(x)) equals g(f(x)). The proof by contradiction approach is misapplied, as it should start with an assumption to contradict rather than concluding with "therefore." Additionally, there are concerns about omitted parts in the proof and the relevance of proving inequality when the goal is to determine which function is larger. Overall, the proof lacks clarity and justification for its assertions.
Sylvester Sly
Messages
2
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Which is greater cos(sin(x)) or sin(cos(x)), determine with proof.

The Attempt at a Solution



http://img21.imageshack.us/img21/5193/proof1ii.jpg
http://img109.imageshack.us/img109/8678/proof2w.jpg
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Something you asserted early on is not true - that f(g(x)) = g(f(x)). I stopped reading after that.
 
Mark44 said:
Something you asserted early on is not true - that f(g(x)) = g(f(x)). I stopped reading after that.

I was doing proof by contradiction. In order to prove f(g(x)) =/= g(f(x)) i started off by letting f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) and working from there.
 
Sylvester Sly said:
I was doing proof by contradiction. In order to prove f(g(x)) =/= g(f(x)) i started off by letting f(g(x)) = g(f(x)) and working from there.
You would have been doing a proof by contradiction if you said you were doing a proof by contradiction. The way you've written it, you're just asserting (without justification) something that is not even true.

Other than that, it seems reasonable...
 
If you're doing a proof by contradiction, you don't start with "therefore ..." - You start by assuming the thing you want to contradict.

Also, in the same line you have "Therefore g(f(x)) = f(g(x)) cos(sin(x))". It looks like you omitted part of what you wanted to say.
 
Mark44 said:
If you're doing a proof by contradiction, you don't start with "therefore ..." - You start by assuming the thing you want to contradict.

Also, in the same line you have "Therefore g(f(x)) = f(g(x)) cos(sin(x))". It looks like you omitted part of what you wanted to say.
I assumed that was a typos for "g(f(x))= f(g(x))= cos(sin(x))". But, in any case, if the problem was to determine which was larger, I don't see what a proof by contradiction that they are not equal would accomplish.
 
I picked up this problem from the Schaum's series book titled "College Mathematics" by Ayres/Schmidt. It is a solved problem in the book. But what surprised me was that the solution to this problem was given in one line without any explanation. I could, therefore, not understand how the given one-line solution was reached. The one-line solution in the book says: The equation is ##x \cos{\omega} +y \sin{\omega} - 5 = 0##, ##\omega## being the parameter. From my side, the only thing I could...
Essentially I just have this problem that I'm stuck on, on a sheet about complex numbers: Show that, for ##|r|<1,## $$1+r\cos(x)+r^2\cos(2x)+r^3\cos(3x)...=\frac{1-r\cos(x)}{1-2r\cos(x)+r^2}$$ My first thought was to express it as a geometric series, where the real part of the sum of the series would be the series you see above: $$1+re^{ix}+r^2e^{2ix}+r^3e^{3ix}...$$ The sum of this series is just: $$\frac{(re^{ix})^n-1}{re^{ix} - 1}$$ I'm having some trouble trying to figure out what to...
Back
Top