Is the Rietdijk Proof Correct About the Future Being Predetermined?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around the implications of the Rietdijk proof, which suggests that the future is predetermined from the perspective of a distant observer, raising philosophical questions about the nature of time and simultaneity in relativity. Participants explore the idea that while relativity does not favor any particular frame of reference, one could argue for a "metaphysically preferred" frame that defines a true present. This leads to the contention that, according to this view, the future is not fixed and remains open to change. The conversation highlights the intersection of physics and philosophy, emphasizing the complexities of defining time and simultaneity in a relativistic context.
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is this right? - Rietdijk proof future determined, already "past"for distant observer

http://www.jstor.org/pss/186637 see details. I totally agree!
 
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Why silent? Hahahaaa... The question is beyond this forum.
 


It's really a philosophical question. Relativity says that no frame can be physically preferred, but that doesn't totally rule out the idea that one frame's definition of simultaneity could be "true" in some metaphysical sense, though no experiment would ever tell us which frame this was. I don't believe that myself, but if someone does, they could say that the "metaphysically preferred" frame defines the true present, and that nothing in the future of this present is set yet.
 
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