Is This Set a Spanning Set for R3?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around whether the set of vectors {(1; 1; 0), (0; 0; 2), (0; 0; 1), (1; 2; 3)} constitutes a spanning set for R3. Participants are examining the definitions of linear independence and dependence in the context of vector spaces.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the assertion that (0; 0; 2) is linearly independent, suggesting that it must be considered in relation to the other vectors. Others propose using definitions and equations to demonstrate whether the set spans R3.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of linear independence and the implications for spanning sets. There is no explicit consensus, but various lines of reasoning are being examined.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential confusion regarding the dimensions of the vector space and the implications of the rank of the matrix formed by the vectors. There are also references to the nature of the solution set and its relation to the original question.

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Homework Statement



Is {(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3)} a spanning set for R3

The Attempt at a Solution

This is supposed to be easy but the answer sheet might be wrong.

The answer I have says it is and then proceed to say that (0;0;2) is linearly independent. But it isn't because (0;0;2) can be expressed as a linear combination of the other vectors!
 
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Surely it doesn't say "(0; 0; 2) is linearly independent". For one thing that doesn't make sense. A single vector is not "dependent" or "independent". It must be dependent or independent of other vectors. You can also say that a set or vectors is "independent" (no vector is dependent on any of the others in the set) or "dependent" (at least one of the in the set is dependent on others).

In any case, you could answer the question directly from the definition: show that, for any numbers, x, y, and z, there are numbers a, b, c, and d, such that, a(1; 1; 0)+ b(0;0;2)+ c(0;0;1)+ d(1;2;3)= (a+ d; a+ 2; 2b+ c+ 3d)= (x, y, z). That is, show that the set of equations, a+ d= x, a+ 2b= y, 2b+ c+ 3d= z can be solved for any values of x, y, and z.

It is true in any vector space of dimension n, that a set of n independent vectors must span the space. So it is sufficient to find a subset of 3 independent vectors to show that these span the space.
For example, a(1;1;0)+ b(0;0;2)+ c(0;0;1)= (a; a+ b; c)= (0, 0 ,0) then we must have a= 0, a+ b= 0, and c= 0. Since b= 0, a+ b= a= 0. a= b= c= 0 is the only solution so that subset is independent so spans the space so the original set spans the space.
{(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3
{(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3
 
HallsofIvy said:
Surely it doesn't say "(0; 0; 2) is linearly independent". For one thing that doesn't make sense. A single vector is not "dependent" or "independent". It must be dependent or independent of other vectors. You can also say that a set or vectors is "independent" (no vector is dependent on any of the others in the set) or "dependent" (at least one of the in the set is dependent on others).

In any case, you could answer the question directly from the definition: show that, for any numbers, x, y, and z, there are numbers a, b, c, and d, such that, a(1; 1; 0)+ b(0;0;2)+ c(0;0;1)+ d(1;2;3)= (a+ d; a+ 2; 2b+ c+ 3d)= (x, y, z). That is, show that the set of equations, a+ d= x, a+ 2b= y, 2b+ c+ 3d= z can be solved for any values of x, y, and z.

It is true in any vector space of dimension n, that a set of n independent vectors must span the space. So it is sufficient to find a subset of 3 independent vectors to show that these span the space.
For example, a(1;1;0)+ b(0;0;2)+ c(0;0;1)= (a; a+ b; c)= (0, 0 ,0) then we must have a= 0, a+ b= 0, and c= 0. Since b= 0, a+ b= a= 0. a= b= c= 0 is the only solution so that subset is independent so spans the space so the original set spans the space.
{(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3
{(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3

With respect to the question, the solution set has 1 free variable. Thus, the solution set has infinitely many solutions. And so, span {(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3)} is a spanning set for R4.

Keeping this in mind, I could have equally, instead of expressing [a;b;c;d] as a linear combination of the set of vectors, any vectors in R4 would have equally worked, wouldn't it?

I have also read that row reducing the set of vector
[1 1 1; 0 0 2; 0 0 1; 1 2 3] gives us the rank, which, if rank(matrix)= n for Rn then the solution set is trivial and so the system is linearly independent. But why?
 
?? You gave the problem as "Is {(1; 1; 0);(0; 0; 2);(0; 0; 1);(1; 2; 3)} a spanning set for R3?"

That is a "yes" or "no" question. I have no idea what you mean by a "solution set" for a "yes" or "no" question.
 

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