Is Time Merely Constant Change?

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The discussion centers on the perception and nature of time, with participants questioning whether time is an illusion or a fundamental aspect of reality. Many argue that what we perceive as time is merely a measurement of change, suggesting that everything is in a constant state of transformation rather than passing through time. The conversation references philosophical and scientific perspectives, including ideas from notable figures like Stephen Hawking and Julian Barbour, to support the notion of a dimensionless universe where time and space may not exist independently. Participants express a desire for deeper understanding of why change occurs and the implications of perceiving time as an illusion. Ultimately, the dialogue emphasizes the complexity of defining time and its relationship to change in the universe.
  • #301
Paul Martin said:
...I agree that if you posit such a "One", then your development is without error -- at least any error that I could detect. But I think you should acknowledge that such a "One", who is in a position to "know" information, is a necessary assumption behind your work. No?...
This is a valid point you make Paul. But is there not yet a second assumption required by Doctordick ? Is not also required a metaphysical entity "information" -- that is, not only must we assume a "One" in position to know as you rightly claim, but also (and I would hold a priori) we must assume some "existent" that "exists" as "information" that the "One" does "know" ? So, contrary to the claim of Doctordick that he has discovered a philosophy of "undefined ontology" based on "no assumptions"--at least two (perhaps more ?) assumptions are required for his philosophy to be valid, and both asumptions require numerous definitions of an ontological nature. And, in the final analysis, is it not true that what you find to have "development without error" in the philosophy presented by Doctordick is nothing more than a claim to have discovered the Law of Identity--that is that A = A. Is this not the essence of his mathematical equation of explanation derived from "undefined ontology" ?
 
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  • #302
Well, I have decided to answer Rade in spite of the fact that I am convinced that he has utterly no interest in what I am trying to present. The fact that he will go to any limit to misinterpret what I say presents a real problem as it confuses those who have a genuine interest.
Rade said:
:eek: No, when one claims to make a scientific "prediction" one says nothing more or less that their exists a constraint. So, if as you claim a prediction is a presumption, and "all you want to avoid is making any presumption", then what you claim to do is not science.
This is no more than misdirection of attention. The issue is not prediction of the future (that is no more than a presumption of the correctness of one's proposed solution), the real test of "scientific explanation" is that it consistently predicts the past: i.e., the collection of events known to the examiner.
Rade said:
Yes, and it is the "specific sequence" of these events that is a form of constraint and thus what allows for "prediction".
What you are saying is that it is the validity of the explanation to explain what is known (the past) which is taken for evidence that the explanation will work in the future: i.e., that is the source of the "belief" that the prediction will be upheld (a pure and unadulterated assumption).
Rade said:
I think "time" would find it strange indeed that it must wait for you (or any human) to put together a list before it could exist.
And I should take your "doubt" as evidence that "time" is more than a convenient tool for organizing what you know? I think not! "Belief" is not the primary test of truth! The primary test of truth is consistency with what is known (which is "your knowledge of the past").
Rade said:
Well, here we have it in a nutshell, a rehash of worn out logical positivism--as if there was no "time" in the universe before the personal experience of Doctordick.
What I am saying is that there is no need for the concept of time beyond organizing the information upon which your world view is built; and I will demonstrate that fact when my comments are seriously considered. What is important is that the deduced consequences are consistent with experiment (that would be all the "known experiments" as consistency with "future experiments" is an assumption).
Rade said:
Yes, exactly--exactly why what you present has no value at all, for the simple reason that "valid ontological elements" (REALITY) is fixed.
Ah, without listening to what I have to say, you assert that "what present has no value at all". It must be nice to know everything! I am at a loss to understand your inability to think anything out.
Rade said:
... but also this confusion of mine--is not the concept of a "framework" itself an "ontological element" of a more general concept known as "mathematics" ? Just two of many confused notions being put forward by Doctordick as the axioms of a new philosophy.
Perhaps; but "undefined" is "undefined". Have you no capability to comprehend working with an unknown?
mosassam said:
Dear Doctordick, is the life you share with your wife/lover/children/relatives/friends etc. an assumption?
My personal feelings have little or nothing to do with "logical thought". I always go with what "feels right in my gut" and not logic. Logic is related to understanding and understanding is not required to enjoy life. I have known many people who have never concerned themselves with logical thought or understanding anything and yet have lived a full and successful life. Thinking and understanding can be a fun thing to do but don't bet your life on it, it's too easy to be wrong!
Rade said:
But this is just plain false. Consider the TV remote control I now hold. The functionality of its program guide can be viewed as being a valid ontological metaphor of the concept "time", a type of "tinder-box". And what a capital tinder-box it is, for when I strike it once in the negative direction (the past) out comes the TV show about the dog that sat upon the chest of copper money, and when I strike it a second time in the positive direction (the present) out comes the TV show about the dog who had the chest of silver, and when I strike it a third time in the positive direction (the future) then appears the TV show of the dog who had the chest of gold. Your philosophy of the past of interest (say my interest in TV shows) being "built from a collection of presents" is thus falsified.
Ah, you are aware of things which are not part of your past? A remarkable talent; you should make use of it! By the way, how did you come to be aware of these things without experiencing the "present" of learning them?
AnssiH said:
It just struck me a bit odd when you said solipsism is a case of "nothing existing" since the subjective experience exists. Call it an illusion or add any other kind of spin on it whatsoever, but at least one thing always exists in it, which is the experience (or whatever causing the experience) the person is having.
From my perspective, solipsism is a worthless hypothesis as it explains nothing; however, it is implicitly included in my analysis which you will discover when we get to the appropriate point. There are some curious insights at that point but, for the time being, let us not speculate about what is or is not required.
AnssiH said:
Perhaps it's a bit irrelevant to this discussion, but I wonder if you agree that in your framework too we would say that at least one ontological element exists in solipsistic view. Because if you don't agree, then perhaps I have understood something wrong about your philosophy.
Again, the central issue is that I want to clarify exactly how one comes to create a world view from undefined ontological information. Let us accomplish that first.
AnssiH said:
Ok yeah. I guess you don't assume this view is the ontologically correct view of "time/motion" though? I.e. that the ontological nature of time is still somewhat shrouded behind some elements we are ignorant of.
What I have defined is not an ontological element; it is a mere tool for organizing and referring to those ontological elements which define reality. If it is indeed necessary to apply the label "time" to a valid ontological element, we can cross that bridge when we get there (in fact, since nothing is defined, we could simply use the label "real time" to refer to the necessary valid ontological element you have in mind). For the time being (using the common interpretation of that phrase) let's not worry about it.
AnssiH said:
Doctordick said:
Speaking of "explaining things", you might try a quick read of "Commonalities of intelligence in the cosmos". On page 2, post number 23, I define exactly what I mean by "an explanation".
Yeah that's a reasonable/useful definition.
Thanks! You are a rare bird to be so accommodating; most people give me a very hard time with that definition.
AnssiH said:
Yeah so it's not an attempt to pin down the ontological nature of time? This seems to be one source of confusion, it is easy to take your description as an assertion about the true nature of time... (reading the other posts, looks like many people already did...)
You are absolutely correct. I find it very hard to get people to use my definitions as "what I mean". Most everyone wants to comprehend how my definitions correspond to their personal world view; they have no desire to consider a new paradigm no matter how logical the deductions might be (it's easier to just deny the coherence of the definitions). That makes life easy for them and "thinking" is something that most people have no desire to do. They would rather believe the world view created by their subconscious is absolutely true.
AnssiH said:
But then let's see how far we can get with this minimal framework, you know...
That is what analysis is all about. Thank you for your comments; you are clearly a thoughtful person.
Paul Martin said:
Now, here's a question for you, Dick. What exactly constitutes "known information"?
That is exactly the undefined thing. The moment you define anything, you are working on a speculative edifice (very analogous to that specific quadratic equation you referred to in your excellent example).
Paul Martin said:
Known by whom? Shannon has given us a definition for 'information' which is essentially an ordered set of bits which presumably represents something. As I see it, the representation part of it must be defined prior to the gathering and ordering of the bits. Of course, the "representation" may not be strictly necessary for the existence of information.
You are speculating on the definition of "information"
Doctordick said:
Or perhaps you could give attention to another of [Kant's] comments:
"It is indeed a very common fate of human reason first of all to finish its speculative edifice as soon as possible, and then only inquire whether the foundations be sure." A lot of people will agree that "the only thing they are sure of is that they are sure of nothing"; however, watch their faith in their own beliefs harden up as soon as you propose examining that problem!
Paul Martin said:
But you specifically referred to "known information". So it seems that you require a "knower" and a process or state of "knowing". That requirement seems to be an assumption in your work that you overlook. It seems that we must assume some kind of "knower" in order to have "known information". No?
That itself is a speculative edifice. I put it in exactly the same category as AnssiH's concern about solipsism requiring "the experience (or whatever causing the experience) the person is having". It is the opening assumption of a speculative edifice and, as such, has no place in my approach!
Paul Martin said:
You say, "In order to accomplish such a feat, one would need ..." One? Who is this One? It seems to me that a requirement that you overlook is some intelligent or conscious agent (One) who is, or will be, instrumental in going about solving the problem, not to mention being interested in the problem in the first place.
I am explicitly ignoring "speculative edifices" in general, no matter how simple a specific "speculative edifice" might be. The issue here is the problem of understanding how a usable epistemological solution can be developed from an undefined ontology and "who is solving the problem" is part of that very problem.
Paul Martin said:
But I think you should acknowledge that such a "One", who is in a position to "know" information, is a necessary assumption behind your work. No?
That is, in itself, an aspect of the solution of the problem. Would I deny that such a thing is necessary? Well of course not but it has nothing to do with the problem of understanding what has not yet been defined. You are trying to start the discussion with some issues already defined; that very step itself denies the problem.
raolduke said:
Its to bad time is money, because we are all going god-damned broke.
If you are here to make money, you're in the wrong place!
Doctordick said:
That you can make any predictions about the future at all is a presumption and the one thing I want to avoid is making any presumptions (presumptions might preclude discovering the correct solution).
I could certainly predict that my brother-in-law would be elected president in 2008 but I would most probably be wrong! For the benefit of the rest of you, who I hope have a bit more intelligence than Rade, I meant that expectations that those predictions are correct is a presumption. I made an earlier post with regard to this kind of thing that apparently went right over Rade's head.
Doctordick said:
"Exact Science is a field of study where acceptable assertions are specific, well defined, and precise such that any statements cannot be misinterpreted" ... Which means literally, cast out any assertion which fails to fulfill the rule. It seems to me that there is no other specific, precise and well defined interpretation of that statement. ... For those of you who cannot comprehend an interpretation which makes these statements exact, let me know your personal interpretation and I will do my best to provide additional constraints.
The above is a common practice in any practical science presentation I have ever encountered. It is commonly presumed that the student has sufficient intelligence to find an interpretation which is consistent with all that went before. Rade appears to instead pursue the problem of discovering irrational interpretations rather than trying to find consistent interpretations. He is either intentionally trying to confuse matters or he simply lacks the intelligence to find the consistent interpretation; either way, I consider his comments to be un-thought-out and fundamentally worthless.

But, back to AnssiH's post:
AnssiH said:
Doctordick said:
The first step in solving such a problem would be to lay the problem out in detail. In order to accomplish such a feat, one would need a label for each and every valid ontological element going to make up every "present" in that personal list of "presents" which make up the "past" on which the given epistemological solution was based. What needs to be recognized here is that the problem does not actually require knowing the definitions of the labels; all that is actually required is that the labeling itself can be performed.

Consider that statement of the "simplified problem", and let me know if you find any part of it unclear.
Well it seems pretty clear but I have a feeling I could be interpreting some things little bit wrong. I'm trying not to jump ahead and start guessing how do you label ontological elements without defining anything. Let's see it.
The first step is to have a specific epistemological solution (in analogy to Paul's quadratic equation, you can consider it a given fact; we are not concerned with what it is, we are merely concerned with the ontology on which it is based) . This specific epistemological solution (this speculative edifice) is based upon some undefined collection of valid ontological elements which are provided in a sequence of "presents" (i.e., a sequence of changes in the "known" collection of valid ontological elements). The problem is that the definition of these "valid ontological elements" is embedded in that specific epistemological solution.

Essentially, the specific epistemological solution is based on some set of ontological elements which we are required to deduce from our comprehension of that solution itself. Now, in any real case, that epistemological solution is based upon an ontology which may or may not be valid. The existence of invalid ontological elements in the foundation of the solution brings on some complex problems; however, the very complexity introduced by these allusions (these unreal or false ontological elements) is actually part of the speculative edifice itself and not part of the reality (that valid ontology) the epistemological solution was created to explain. Thus my first step is to postpone considering these complexities by looking at a simplified (and admittedly unreal) problem; I will analyze the ontological elements of a epistemological solution which is based on a totally valid ontological set (consider it a pure abstract problem).

The speculative edifice (that given specific epistemological solution) is the source of the definition of each and every ontological element upon which it is based and our understanding of the solution is based upon a collection of valid ontological element provided in a sequence of "presents". Since the definitions of those valid ontological elements is embedded in our understanding of the solution, the problem is quite analogous to a decoding problem. Somehow, starting with a sequence of "presents" (each one a collection of changes in our "past" set of valid ontological elements) we have arrived a our current state: that of being aware of a past consisting of the set of valid ontological elements on which the speculative edifice rests. I will of course presume the edifice is without flaw as, if flaws exist in the specific epistemological solution, it does not qualify as a solution (the flaws themselves destroy it as a solution). Since it is taken as given that we understand that speculative edifice (i.e., know all the implied definitions of those ontological elements) it should be clear that we can refer to any specific element in the relevant set. It is that set of references I wish to analyze.

In analogy with Paul's comparison with the general solution to a quadratic equation, in place of the coefficients of the terms in the quadratic equation, we will instead work with reference labels for the ontological elements which go to make up that "past" (actually the sequence of presents) which lead to the final "past" upon which the epistemological solution is based. Rade has proposed an excellent notation for these "undefined references":
Rade said:
So, let this set [A,B,C] be the set of valid ontological elements that underlay the specific solution [&], therefore the set [A,B,C] is called "the past".
But the number of letters available is somewhat limited, so let me instead propose using numbers as reference labels as there is no limit to the quantity of discrete numbers available. If you can get your head around what I have just proposed, I will show you my attack on analyzing that sequence of number sets.

Sorry I took so long to respond but I have been quite busy for that last few weeks and had little time to pay attention to what was going on here.

Have fun -- Dick
 
  • #303
Rade said:
...is it not true that what you find to have "development without error" in the philosophy presented by Doctordick is nothing more than a claim to have discovered the Law of Identity--that is that A = A. Is this not the essence of his mathematical equation of explanation derived from "undefined ontology" ?
In a way it is; and in a way it is not. Dick's theorem is equivalent to A = A in the same sense that all theorems are. All equations, by definition, are assertions that the left side is equal to the right side. That is, that both sides are identically equal or the same. The fact that each side might be represented by a different set of symbols doesn't change that fact.

But theorems are more than that. They assert that a single quantity can be expressed in two different ways and that is what makes them useful. The equation expressing Dick's theorem is an extremely complex differential equation (at least it seems complex to me). It is not as trivial as the equation A = A. Several well-known laws of physics, such as Maxwell's field equations, Einstein's field equations, and Schroedinger's wave equation are all solutions to Dick's equation. I think that is remarkable and I think it suggests that there may be even more important, as yet undiscovered, solutions to his equation which could be interpreted as extensions to the known laws of physics.

In my opinion, "the essence of his mathematical equation of explanation derived from 'undefined ontology'" is the precise constraints bearing on the creation of any intelligible universe by any putative creator.

Paul Martin said:
But you specifically referred to "known information". So it seems that you require a "knower" and a process or state of "knowing". That requirement seems to be an assumption in your work that you overlook. It seems that we must assume some kind of "knower" in order to have "known information". No?
Doctordick said:
That itself is a speculative edifice. I put it in exactly the same category as AnssiH's concern about solipsism requiring "the experience (or whatever causing the experience) the person is having". It is the opening assumption of a speculative edifice and, as such, has no place in my approach!
I feel like shouting, "EUREKA". I think you have finally succeeded in getting me to understand what you have been trying to tell me all along, Dick. I wish I weren't so slow in catching on, but you have to admit that I am persistent.

Yes, as you have pointed out, my interest in coming up with an explanation for consciousness is a speculative edifice. I guess I knew that all along, but knowing it didn't diminish my interest in the question. Now I see what is going on. Let me explain it using a simple-minded analogy.

If one were to speculate that reality is based on Euclidean space, then one could develop a theory of Euclidean geometry, as Euclid did, and from that go on to predict that the sum of the angles in any triangle in real space would always be 180 degrees.

That would be a "speculative edifice". What you pointed out, and which I missed is that not only is the theory and its predictions a speculative edifice -- that much I knew -- but the entire scenario of "one speculating about the nature of reality and coming up with the theory and its prediction" is also a speculative edifice. The "One" doing the theorizing and speculation, and the speculation and theory itself, are all part and parcel of the "speculative edifice".

So if we avoid all speculation, what do we have left? We have nothing but semantical structures of the "If...then" variety, such as my "If one were to speculate...then one could develop...180 degrees". That is, we must start with nothing but logic and build a logical structure with no assumptions whatsoever.

That is what you have done, Dick. Of course you didn't do it all. You started with the structure of Mathematical Analysis which was already in place. It was built gradually starting with Descartes and then bulking up with Newton. Early in the 20th century, Mathematical Analysis was derived from a foundation of pure logic. So by the time you discovered your theorem, it was built on a foundation of nothing but pure logic with no assumptions at all about anything "real". And, since you developed a theorem, you only added some definitions but no assumptions or additional axioms.

Finally seeing this, I can now respond to AnssiH from another thread.
AnssiH said:
"Rational Mind" is referring to "subjective experience", not to a physical "thing" having an experience.
Yes, I understand that and I agree. But I think you would also agree that you are simply refining definitions of terms that have no intrinsic meaning. They have meaning only in the context of a conversation. And all of this -- the definitions, the conversation, the ideas and concepts -- is nothing but a speculative edifice.
AnssiH said:
It is not possible to understand or even to think about any system without breaking it into sensible "things" (that then can be thought of being in interaction with each others). Rational mind is based on this kind of classification process. (Another way to put it, the system is broken into semantical components, which make up the mental model we are aware of... Because of having a mental model of reality, we can make predictions about its behaviour. And all our rational behaviour is based on this capability of making predictions)
I might agree with this too. But again, the notions of "thinking", of "systems", of "breaking", of "things", etc. are parts of a speculative edifice.
AnssiH said:
So, the subjective experience definitely exists,
I agree completely. My favorite way of saying the same thing is that, "Thought happens".
AnssiH said:
but if we want to understand the real nature of the subjective experience, it can be erroneous to assume identity to one's own mind.
Exactly. Moreover, it can be erroneous to assume anything whatsoever.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #304
Doctordick said:
...the real test of "scientific explanation" is that it consistently predicts the past: i.e., the collection of events known to the examiner...
NO, this is an incomplete understanding of relationship of "prediction" to science. The concept of the null hypothesis not only predicts "the collection of events known to examiner", it also predicts the "collection of events unknown to examiner". It would appear you confuse metaphysical "entities" with metaphysical "events".
 
  • #305
Paul Martin said:
... it can be erroneous to assume anything whatsoever...
While it may be erroneous for you to say that you "assume" that you exist, it is not erroneous for you to say that you "know" that you exist. I think here you explain nicely that the philosophy of Doctordick derives from the mental operation of "to assume" (i.e. it derives from speculative edifice itself) as opposed to the operation "to know" (i.e., a philosophy derived from a non-speculative edifice), for if we know anything about an edifice we know there are only two types (1) the speculative edifice and (2) the non-speculative edifice. And the philosophy of Doctordick derives from the undefined ontology of speculative edifice itself, no ? And hence my reason for finding this philosophy of no value, for I derive philosophy from non-speculative edifice.
Edit: Here I define "non-speculative edifice" as a defined collection of valid ontological elements, "speculative edifice" as an undefined collection of valid ontological elements.
 
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  • #306
Paul Martin said:
...The equation expressing Dick's theorem is an extremely complex differential equation (at least it seems complex to me)...
I see--and does complexity = "reality" or "validity" ? And where exactly in the peer reviewed literature has this new complex equation been published ? Or, if that is asking too much, since you mention famous equations of physics that are solutions, please post the thread links from the physics section where the professional physicians that moderate that section of forum give the Doctordick equation rave review as a new fundamental explanation that unifys other equations of physics. Or, if the professionals in the physics section of the forum are too dense to understand the importance of the equation since it is so complex, could you please post the threads from the math section of this forum where professional mathematicians have looked into the thinking of Doctordick's differential equation and concurred that it offers a new fundamental mathematical "explanation" of explanation itself.
 
  • #307
Doctordick said:
...What I have defined is not an ontological element; it is a mere tool for organizing and referring to those ontological elements which define reality...
But---a mere tool is a metaphysical given (= ontological element). Thus, if what you "define" (as you say) is a "mere tool" then what you "define" is an ontological element, and what you then say above has no meaning. For example, suppose I have the ontological elements (A), (B), (C) and I use a "mere tool" (Z) to organize the elements into a set {A,B,C}, then into the set {C,B,A}, then into the set {B,C,A}, and so on. You see--(Z) is also then an "ontological element"--it is the element that one uses to conduct the transformation to form the various sets, think (Z) is "toolbox with three slots"---(A), (B), (C) are tools. Sorry but your "explanations" of what it is you may understand is so convoluted that you put yourself into these types of contradictory corners of logical thinking, which are so numerous in your posts that I find it like a game of "Where's Waldo" to find them over and over and over. Bad me, I stop now Dick--go on with your explanation of explanation itself.
 
  • #308
Paul Martin said:
That would be a "speculative edifice". What you pointed out, and which I missed is that not only is the theory and its predictions a speculative edifice -- that much I knew -- but the entire scenario of "one speculating about the nature of reality and coming up with the theory and its prediction" is also a speculative edifice. The "One" doing the theorizing and speculation, and the speculation and theory itself, are all part and parcel of the "speculative edifice"
I truly hope you have hit the nail on the head. Until now I have been utterly bamboozled by what Dr.Dick has been laying down, I believe I have found the source of my "bamboozlement". In trying to understand what Dr.D. has been saying I have been attempting to fit it into my own framework of knowledge (something I have done so automatically I haven't noticed it). In doing so I am constantly bringing my own 'speculative baggage' into things. I have a queasy feeling that it's not the complexity of Dr.D's approach I have been missing, but the simplicity. Nothing can be assumed, not even one's own subjective inclinations. I only have one question:
Are we assuming Logic? (apologies if it's a dumb question)
I feel the onus now on myself to understand fully and accept the inital definitions as to do otherwise involves me 'twisting' things to suit my own point of view.
 
  • #309
Rade said:
While it may be erroneous for you to say that you "assume" that you exist, it is not erroneous for you to say that you "know" that you exist.
How do you know that?

I didn't say that it is erroneous, I said that it can be erroneous. I don't think we have any way of determining whether any assertion is true or not.

The problem with asserting that "I exist" is the same problem I have with the premise in Descartes' cogito: "I think". We can't really say or know anything about either of these assertions unless and until we are clear about the meaning of the word "I". In trying to define "I", or "you" for that matter, we run headlong into the problem of identity and self that is endlessly debated without yielding a resolution.

It is for that reason that I have morphed Descartes' premise to simply, "Thought happens". Here I don't even mention anything like a self, nor do I specify whether thought happens to a "thing", or by a "thing", nor how it happens, nor where, nor when. I only know that it happens. And, that is the only thing I think I know for sure.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #310
Rade said:
I see--and does complexity = "reality" or "validity" ?
No. I made no such claim.
Rade said:
And where exactly in the peer reviewed literature has this new complex equation been published ?
Nowhere. People who publish that literature do not consider Dick a peer because he is not associated with any approved university. Not only do they refuse to publish it, they refuse to read it. That also holds for the mathematical literature and the community that controls it.
Rade said:
Or, if the professionals in the physics section of the forum are too dense to understand the importance of the equation since it is so complex, could you please post the threads from the math section of this forum where professional mathematicians have looked into the thinking of Doctordick's differential equation and concurred that it offers a new fundamental mathematical "explanation" of explanation itself.
It's not a matter of density. It's a matter of defending turf.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #311
mosassam said:
I truly hope you have hit the nail on the head. Until now I have been utterly bamboozled by what Dr.Dick has been laying down, I believe I have found the source of my "bamboozlement". In trying to understand what Dr.D. has been saying I have been attempting to fit it into my own framework of knowledge (something I have done so automatically I haven't noticed it). In doing so I am constantly bringing my own 'speculative baggage' into things. I have a queasy feeling that it's not the complexity of Dr.D's approach I have been missing, but the simplicity. Nothing can be assumed, not even one's own subjective inclinations. I only have one question:
Are we assuming Logic? (apologies if it's a dumb question)
I feel the onus now on myself to understand fully and accept the inital definitions as to do otherwise involves me 'twisting' things to suit my own point of view.
I wish I were as quick and sharp as you, mosassam. I have been struggling to understand Dick's result for six or seven years now, and as you can see, I have just now come to catch on to part of it that you have grasped in mere weeks.

I don't feel qualified to answer your question, but I'll try anyway. Yes, I think we are assuming logic. But I don't think we really know what logic is. Aristotle thought logic was an a priori given. Only in modern times have we come to realize that logic is arbitrary; at least there is more than one alternative. We also know that mathematics can sort of be built on logic, and Dick built his result on mathematics. So, in order to develop Dick's theorem, logic has to be assumed.

In another sense, Dick's theorem has the assumption that the unknown information must be intelligible, or communicable. That is, it must admit of some kind of tagging process where the individual elements can be identified and talked about. If they can't, then his result does not obtain. This, IMHO, means that it would be possible for a creator to create a completely random, inconsistent, meaningless universe that wouldn't necessarily have to follow the laws of physics.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #312
Paul Martin said:
I wish I were as quick and sharp as you, mosassam. I have been struggling to understand Dick's result for six or seven years now, and as you can see, I have just now come to catch on to part of it that you have grasped in mere weeks.
Your 'Eureka' post must be viral because I caught it aswell, a beautiful yet profoundly simple insight. So I, a complete novice, get to stand on your shoulders. Many thanks. (I hope Dr.D doesn't come along and put a spanner in the works)

I don't feel qualified to answer your question, but I'll try anyway. Yes, I think we are assuming logic. But I don't think we really know what logic is. Aristotle thought logic was an a priori given. Only in modern times have we come to realize that logic is arbitrary; at least there is more than one alternative. We also know that mathematics can sort of be built on logic, and Dick built his result on mathematics. So, in order to develop Dick's theorem, logic has to be assumed.
I must certainly say "Balls" to Aristotle's either/or logic and "Hurrah" to quantum 'fuzzy' logic. (I do find it really disturbing that more than one kind of Logic exists, this doesn't seem ... well ... logical). I would also like to propose something, for clarity of discussion, called English Prime or EPrime. No use of the words "is" or "are" may be permitted as any statement that uses them inherently contains metaphysical qualities. (In the extreme, no form of the verb "be" may occur). The clarity this adds to statements can be quite surprising even though it comes across as a silly wordgame.
In another sense, Dick's theorem has the assumption that the unknown information must be intelligible, or communicable. That is, it must admit of some kind of tagging process where the individual elements can be identified and talked about. If they can't, then his result does not obtain. This, IMHO, means that it would be possible for a creator to create a completely random, inconsistent, meaningless universe that wouldn't necessarily have to follow the laws of physics.
The degree to which things must be stripped down seems quite scary (the elusive 'simplicity' I referred to in my last post). Can communication itself be viewed as an assumption? Surely there must be some kind of "consensus" somewhere along the line? Or am I yet again a victim of my own 'speculative baggage'?
I feel that my limitations end at the word "undefined".
 
  • #313
mosassam said:
... Nothing can be assumed, not even one's own subjective inclinations...
Yes, and if no"thing" be assumed, yet some"thing" exists that we discuss, then what exists must be a given--e.g., a metaphysical entity that exists as an axiom without being taken for granted. This is the nice property of the axiom, it is "outside" the mental process of explanation, it is never brought to the table of analysis, it is never reduced to a set with parts that meet the solution to some equation, it is never taken for granted--the axiom is priori to all explanation, it is the concept on which all proofs and explanation rests. And if this is all that Dr. D is saying, is he really saying anything new under the sun ?
 
  • #314
Paul Martin said:
I feel like shouting, "EUREKA". I think you have finally succeeded in getting me to understand what you have been trying to tell me all along, Dick. I wish I weren't so slow in catching on, but you have to admit that I am persistent.
You have been wonderful Paul; most people pretty well take the first excuse they can find to ignore what I say. You have at least recognized that something was there. Thank you!
mosassam said:
Are we assuming Logic? (apologies if it's a dumb question)
No, it's not a dumb question at all. Yes, I am essentially assuming Logic; but not as a foundation of ontology but rather as a foundation of communications. As I have said elsewhere, communications require knowledge of the meanings of the symbols used to communicate. The very structure we use for communications is a speculative edifice presumed to be understood by both parties. That this understanding is a presumption should be understood by everyone. One must understand that even mathematics is a speculative edifice. The advantage of mathematics is that great minds have spent thousands of years eliminating inconsistencies in the formal structure. What this really means is that, that when it comes to defined operations I can be pretty sure that everyone (that would be everyone who understands mathematics) will arrive at the same results that I will (we can obtain agreement); something which certainly cannot be professed in an English conversation.

Feynman once said that, "mathematics was the distilled essence of logic". The fundamental issue of "logic" is that it must never contradict itself. The problem with contradiction is that any system which contains a contradiction can give different answers to the same question and thus fails in its purpose if that purpose is to answer questions. What I am trying to say is that I view logic and mathematics as a well researched field which can be used to communicate ideas. I am certainly presuming it is internally self consistent; if it isn't, I will let more brilliant minds than mine worry about it.
Paul Martin said:
People who publish that literature do not consider Dick a peer because he is not associated with any approved university. Not only do they refuse to publish it, they refuse to read it. That also holds for the mathematical literature and the community that controls it. It's not a matter of density. It's a matter of defending turf.
Some twenty years ago, I asked for help getting my stuff published from my thesis adviser I had in graduate school in the sixty's. He outright told me that no one would ever read my stuff because I hadn't paid my dues (that would be, "worked as a publishing scientist") and refused to read it himself. At the time I thought he was "full of it", but it turned out to be a very accurate assessment of the situation. Over the years, I have been confronted with the fact that all physicists I have talked to have insisted it was philosophy and outside their interest; philosophers have insisted it was mathematics and outside their interest and mathematicians have insisted it is physics and -- once again -- outside their interest. I (probably because I was trained as a physicist) have come to the conclusion that it's philosophy and have tried to put it into terms understood by philosophers. (That hasn't been easy.)

Paul Martin said:
This, IMHO, means that it would be possible for a creator to create a completely random, inconsistent, meaningless universe that wouldn't necessarily have to follow the laws of physics.
At this point I disagree with you. If you follow my logic carefully, you will find that the universe follows the laws of physics for the same reason that the books in the library are sorted according to the Dewy decimal system. Physical law is no more than a convenient way of keeping track of completely random information. Just as I introduced "time" as a procedural tool for handling change in "knowledge", all the common concepts of physical law can be likewise be introduced as tools for handling different aspects of that "knowledge". But that will be beyond your comprehension until you completely understand my presentation. Of interest to me is that this fact guarantees that the "foundations" of any flaw free speculative edifice must obey the laws of physics.

But that is far down the road. For the moment, you should examine the problem I am presenting to AnssiH.
Doctordick said:
But, back to AnssiH's post:
The first step is to have a specific epistemological solution (in analogy to Paul's quadratic equation, you can consider it a given fact; we are not concerned with what it is, we are merely concerned with the ontology on which it is based) . This specific epistemological solution (this speculative edifice) is based upon some undefined collection of valid ontological elements which are provided in a sequence of "presents" (i.e., a sequence of changes in the "known" collection of valid ontological elements). The problem is that the definition of these "valid ontological elements" is embedded in that specific epistemological solution.

Essentially, the specific epistemological solution is based on some set of ontological elements which we are required to deduce from our comprehension of that solution itself. Now, in any real case, that epistemological solution is based upon an ontology which may or may not be valid. The existence of invalid ontological elements in the foundation of the solution brings on some complex problems; however, the very complexity introduced by these allusions (these unreal or false ontological elements) is actually part of the speculative edifice itself and not part of the reality (that valid ontology) the epistemological solution was created to explain. Thus my first step is to postpone considering these complexities by looking at a simplified (and admittedly unreal) problem; I will analyze the ontological elements of a epistemological solution which is based on a totally valid ontological set (consider it a pure abstract problem).

The speculative edifice (that given specific epistemological solution) is the source of the definition of each and every ontological element upon which it is based and our understanding of the solution is based upon a collection of valid ontological element provided in a sequence of "presents". Since the definitions of those valid ontological elements is embedded in our understanding of the solution, the problem is quite analogous to a decoding problem. Somehow, starting with a sequence of "presents" (each one a collection of changes in our "past" set of valid ontological elements) we have arrived a our current state: that of being aware of a past consisting of the set of valid ontological elements on which the speculative edifice rests. I will of course presume the edifice is without flaw as, if flaws exist in the specific epistemological solution, it does not qualify as a solution (the flaws themselves destroy it as a solution). Since it is taken as given that we understand that speculative edifice (i.e., know all the implied definitions of those ontological elements) it should be clear that we can refer to any specific element in the relevant set. It is that set of references I wish to analyze.

In analogy with Paul's comparison with the general solution to a quadratic equation, in place of the coefficients of the terms in the quadratic equation, we will instead work with reference labels for the ontological elements which go to make up that "past" (actually the sequence of presents) which lead to the final "past" upon which the epistemological solution is based. Rade has proposed an excellent notation for these "undefined references":
Rade said:
So, let this set [A,B,C] be the set of valid ontological elements that underlay the specific solution [&], therefore the set [A,B,C] is called "the past".
But the number of letters available is somewhat limited, so let me instead propose using numbers as reference labels as there is no limit to the quantity of discrete numbers available. If you can get your head around what I have just proposed, I will show you my attack on analyzing that sequence of number sets.
Again I apologize for the delay; we've had house guests and the forum pretty well takes second place to life.

Have fun -- Dick
 
  • #315
Rade said:
Yes, and if no"thing" be assumed, yet some"thing" exists that we discuss, then what exists must be a given--e.g., a metaphysical entity that exists as an axiom without being taken for granted.
I feel a bit cheeky posting as I'm in the company of some serious heads but, in the light of recent developments, I'd like to try on my new insight into this thread. What consequences arise when the 'some"thing"' you refer to in your post remains undefined? In no way am I going to second guess DoctorDick, but it seems that from 'out of the undefined' springs the axioms that we both feel must exist.
I must also ask a question, Rade, that may seem insulting to your intelligence but I promise I don't mean it this way. - How much of yourself do you bring to your posts? Looking at your posts there seems to be a consistency of view that bespeaks your own mindset. You approach DoctorDick's work with a healthy scepticism (and rightly so) and I'm sure you'd agree that any new theorem must stand the 'slings and arrows' of such scepticism. However, this simply demonstrates your own "speculative baggage". DoctorDick has either done something very crafty or he has hit on something quite fundamental in some sense, because it seems that you cannot approach his work with your own opinion. In a way you have to accept what he says because to do otherwise means introducing your "speculative baggage". I may be wrong about this, or may have misrepresented or misunderstood it in some way, but if not, how difficult will it be to have to accept something you intuitively disagree with. (Personally speaking - very difficult as it goes against my fundamental nature, or should I say "speculative baggage")
 
  • #316
Doctordick said:
I will analyze the ontological elements of a epistemological solution which is based on a totally valid ontological set

A change in knowledge can only occur in the present after which it becomes part of the past.
With regards to the "flawless Solution" presented above:
The "past of interest" = the collection of specific presents that relate to the part of reality the Solution has been created to explain.
The "past of interest" contains the collection/set of valid ontological elements specifically concerned with the Solution. (not sure about 'contains')
The ontological elements are undefined.
The definition for every element is 'embedded' in the Solution.
Given that we fully understand the Solution it is now possible to define the ontological elements upon which the Solution is based.
(please tell me I'm getting a handle on this :bugeye: )
 
  • #317
Doctordick said:
Thanks! You are a rare bird to be so accommodating; most people give me a very hard time with that definition.

Well it's perhaps not too much a case of accommodation, but more of a co-incident in that it is very similar with the way I view "models" & "predictions" (= explanations & expectations)

But, back to AnssiH's post:
The first step is to have a specific epistemological solution (in analogy to Paul's quadratic equation, you can consider it a given fact; we are not concerned with what it is, we are merely concerned with the ontology on which it is based) . This specific epistemological solution (this speculative edifice) is based upon some undefined collection of valid ontological elements which are provided in a sequence of "presents" (i.e., a sequence of changes in the "known" collection of valid ontological elements). The problem is that the definition of these "valid ontological elements" is embedded in that specific epistemological solution.

Essentially, the specific epistemological solution is based on some set of ontological elements which we are required to deduce from our comprehension of that solution itself. Now, in any real case, that epistemological solution is based upon an ontology which may or may not be valid. The existence of invalid ontological elements in the foundation of the solution brings on some complex problems; however, the very complexity introduced by these allusions (these unreal or false ontological elements) is actually part of the speculative edifice itself and not part of the reality (that valid ontology) the epistemological solution was created to explain. Thus my first step is to postpone considering these complexities by looking at a simplified (and admittedly unreal) problem; I will analyze the ontological elements of a epistemological solution which is based on a totally valid ontological set (consider it a pure abstract problem).

The speculative edifice (that given specific epistemological solution) is the source of the definition of each and every ontological element upon which it is based and our understanding of the solution is based upon a collection of valid ontological element provided in a sequence of "presents". Since the definitions of those valid ontological elements is embedded in our understanding of the solution, the problem is quite analogous to a decoding problem. Somehow, starting with a sequence of "presents" (each one a collection of changes in our "past" set of valid ontological elements) we have arrived a our current state: that of being aware of a past consisting of the set of valid ontological elements on which the speculative edifice rests. I will of course presume the edifice is without flaw as, if flaws exist in the specific epistemological solution, it does not qualify as a solution (the flaws themselves destroy it as a solution).

The stuff about the specific epistemological solutions being the source of all defined ontological elements sounds all very valid to me (since it again coincides with my views). By "flaws in the specific epistemological solution" you mean it's considered flawed if it produces wrong expectations? I.e. if its predictions are not valid.

Since it is taken as given that we understand that speculative edifice (i.e., know all the implied definitions of those ontological elements) it should be clear that we can refer to any specific element in the relevant set. It is that set of references I wish to analyze.

In analogy with Paul's comparison with the general solution to a quadratic equation, in place of the coefficients of the terms in the quadratic equation, we will instead work with reference labels for the ontological elements which go to make up that "past" (actually the sequence of presents) which lead to the final "past" upon which the epistemological solution is based. Rade has proposed an excellent notation for these "undefined references":
But the number of letters available is somewhat limited, so let me instead propose using numbers as reference labels as there is no limit to the quantity of discrete numbers available. If you can get your head around what I have just proposed, I will show you my attack on analyzing that sequence of number sets.

Well this latter part I'm not quite getting. What do you mean with "set of references" (of specific ontological elements)? I.e what does it mean to "refer to a specific element", is it not the same as "defining an ontological element"?

Similarly I'm not grasping what does it mean to "work with reference labels of ontological elements"... is that something you were supposed to clarify in the next step?

-Anssi
 
  • #318
Paul Martin said:
Finally seeing this, I can now respond to AnssiH from another thread.
"Rational Mind" is referring to "subjective experience", not to a physical "thing" having an experience.

Yes, I understand that and I agree. But I think you would also agree that you are simply refining definitions of terms that have no intrinsic meaning. They have meaning only in the context of a conversation. And all of this -- the definitions, the conversation, the ideas and concepts -- is nothing but a speculative edifice.

Yes I agree with that, and it is in fact precisely the conclusion of the particular worldview (specific solution) that I hold, that "we have nothing but semantical structures of the "If...then" variety"

This is what I've been referring to by "semantical worldview" which is at root only a self-supporting "circle of beliefs". I.e. devoid of real "empirical grounding". This view is obviously also based on a "specific epistemological solution", and it does not escape its own conclusion about all worldviews being circles of beliefs.

It seems that Dr. Dick and I have arrived to very similar conclusions but via wildly different routes.

-Anssi
 
  • #319
mosassam said:
(I do find it really disturbing that more than one kind of Logic exists, this doesn't seem ... well ... logical).
Yes, it has made me uneasy ever since my first serious math class. It has always been a puzzle to me how we know what the rules of logic are, and how we know we can trust them. I fully intend to go back and take a course or two in Foundations of Mathematics just to try to come to grips with this problem. (I'm just too busy right now, though.)
mosassam said:
Can communication itself be viewed as an assumption?
Yes, I think so. I think we assume that the communicants have a mutually consistent world-view or context which gives communicated ideas consistent meaning between the communicants. I think we have to assume that because we have no way, other than more communication, of verifying that two communicants really have the same idea in mind.
mosassam said:
Surely there must be some kind of "consensus" somewhere along the line?
Yes, in spades. As Quine pointed out, the consensus occurs everywhere along the entire line of the communication among the entire communicating population. And, it is more complex than that. The consensus changes continually throughout the process finally producing whatever level of consensus exists between two communicants at the time of a specific communication act. In the best case of natural language, the consensus is only approximate. It is better in mathematics, but you still have examples like Lobachevsky overturning a millennium old consensus of opinion about geometry.
mosassam said:
Or am I yet again a victim of my own 'speculative baggage'?
No more than any of the rest of us.
mosassam said:
I feel that my limitations end at the word "undefined".
Well, I think you are bumping into the same limitation the rest of us are. Let me try to push against it a little by referring to one of Rade's comments:
Rade said:
Yes, and if no"thing" be assumed, yet some"thing" exists that we discuss, then what exists must be a given--e.g., a metaphysical entity that exists
With this as a starting point, we have that some"thing" exists as a given, and we want to discuss it without any assumptions. In order to discuss it, we give it a name, or a tag, simply to be able to refer to it when we discuss it. This tag is not the "thing", and it says nothing about the "thing". That is, it carries no implied assumptions with it. The tag simply allows us to discuss the "thing". But just like 'x' being a tag denoting a number in mathematics where 'x' says nothing about the number, the tag is nothing but a variable used in discussion denoting the "thing" without implying anything whatsoever about the nature of the "thing". We can say that the thing is a metaphysical entity without making any claims about the nature of the "thing". We only mean by "metaphysical entity" that the "thing" exists. We have made no assumptions -- only definitions.
Rade said:
e.g., a metaphysical entity that exists as an axiom without being taken for granted.
Here I must leap to my feet and object. It's probably only because I bring a slightly different "consensus" to the conversation than does Rade. But to me, the term 'axiom' is defined only in a mathematical context. And even in mathematics, the term has evolved in meaning. It used to mean a statement that was obviously true. It has long since been agreed by mathematicians that there is no such statement. Now, the term is taken to mean a statement that is assumed to be true. An axiom is a deliberately chosen assumption.

So, back to our discussion of a "thing" that exists and to which we have assigned a tag for the purposes of referring to it in a discussion. There is no axiom. We can talk about the "thing", using the tag, without ever making a statement that we assume to be true about the "thing".
Rade said:
e.g., a metaphysical entity that exists as an axiom without being taken for granted.
I'm not sure what you are getting at when you say "without being taken for granted."
Rade said:
This is the nice property of the axiom, it is "outside" the mental process of explanation, it is never brought to the table of analysis, it is never reduced to a set with parts that meet the solution to some equation, it is never taken for granted--the axiom is priori to all explanation, it is the concept on which all proofs and explanation rests.
You and I obviously have very different notions for the term 'axiom'. I don't understand what you said here at all.
Rade said:
And if this is all that Dr. D is saying, is he really saying anything new under the sun ?
That is not all Dr. D is saying. He has proved a theorem of mathematics (which I think belongs in the subject of statistics or probability theory) which describes constraints on any communicable universe. I think it has powerful implications and that somebody qualified should take a look at it and exploit it. It may even turn out to be something new under the sun.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #320
mosassam said:
What consequences arise when the 'some"thing"' you refer to in your post remains undefined? In no way am I going to second guess DoctorDick, but it seems that from 'out of the undefined' springs the axioms that we both feel must exist.
Sorry to butt in here, but to continue with what I said earlier, I think you are using the term axiom in a non-mathematical way. I could agree with you by interpreting what you said as follows: 'Out of the undefined' springs the axioms of logic and from those spring mathematics and within that springs Dick's theorem. Dick's theorem says that 'out of the undefined' springs a set of constraints on communicable universes.

(I should point out that Dick in earlier years referred to his undefined set of numbers as a 'universe', much like they do in statistics and probability theory, and as I did in the previous paragraph. This seemed to cause no end of consternation among philosophers he talked to. It really got in the way of communication. Dick finally gave up calling it a 'universe' and simply started calling it 'A' instead. This seems to be easier for people to accept. It's too bad that people have such trouble seeing a mere symbol as simply a mere symbol.)

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #321
AnssiH said:
It seems that Dr. Dick and I have arrived to very similar conclusions but via wildly different routes.
Make that three of us.
AnssiH said:
Yes I agree with that, and it is in fact precisely the conclusion of the particular worldview (specific solution) that I hold, that "we have nothing but semantical structures of the "If...then" variety"
I think that's the same as saying that we have nothing but logic.

That also seems to be closer to my worldview than to yours. Some time ago, you and I expressed different views of what might be ultimately fundamental. You thought it might be motion; I think it is the ability to know.

Of course we know that we are both guessing and that neither of us can prove our hunch. But we can still talk about it and try to make sense of our guesses.

To interpret your statement, I think we should change "We have nothing but" to "Nothing exists but". That way we don't have to define 'We', which gets all bogged down in identity, self, consciousness, etc., and we don't have to define 'have', which must be some kind of process which again only adds complexity. By saying "Nothing exists but" we are reduced to the notion of existence itself and a quantifier of zero. I think that is a simpler way to get to the essence, which is what I want to do.

So, if "Nothing exists but semantical structures of the "If...then" variety", what can we conclude? Well, I say we can conclude that there must exist some sort of "mind" (if that word is too loaded, call it "thing", or "X", or whatever you like) which knows of those semantic structures. And so it seems to me that an ability to know is essential.

It also seems to me that semantical structures could exist, along with a "mind", without motion existing. So motion doesn't seem to be essential to me.

But given a "mind" and a semantical structure, the notion of motion could be derived and thus be made to exist as a derivative.

What do you think?

(Dick, please forgive us for indulging in the fun of discussing our speculative edifices. You give me comfort in knowing that however wild my speculations get, you have found the constraints that limit them.)

Warm regards,

Paul
 
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  • #322
mosassam said:
.. how difficult will it be to have to accept something you intuitively disagree with. (Personally speaking - very difficult as it goes against my fundamental nature, or should I say "speculative baggage")...
Thank you for your post about my posts on this thread--you are correct, I view my role in interaction with Dr. D. to be the devil advocate--to be the pure skeptic--to attack and attempt to falsify all that he says. It is the way of science. And to the benefit of Dr. D., if after such attacks his ideas hold true, then so much the better for him. Now, as to your question, it will be of no difficulty for me to accept any"thing" I disagree with intuitively, but great difficulty for me to accept anything I disagree with via pure reason. Let us see where Dr. D. will take us next.
 
  • #323
Paul Martin said:
'Out of the undefined' springs the axioms of logic and from those spring mathematics and within that springs Dick's theorem. Dick's theorem says that 'out of the undefined' springs a set of constraints on communicable universes.
l
Thanks Paul, I was trying to express that, using my own brand of logic, that there must always be some kind of starting point and that this starting point has to be definable. Dr.D's theorem seems to be emerging "from the mists of the undefined" which eradicates the definable starting point I was grasping for.
 
  • #324
Rade said:
I view my role in interaction with Dr. D. to be the devil advocate--to be the pure skeptic--to attack and attempt to falsify all that he says.
Respect Rade. I think your stance has forced Dr.D to clarify certain issues which has played a big part in leading to, what I believe, may be a converging consensus. I would warn against being 'only' devil's advocate though. As for the being able to accept counter-intuitive things, that was a personal statement that obviously applies to me only. (I'm still working on that detatched logical vibe:bugeye: )
 
  • #325
mosassam said:
Thanks Paul, I was trying to express that, using my own brand of logic, that there must always be some kind of starting point and that this starting point has to be definable. Dr.D's theorem seems to be emerging "from the mists of the undefined" which eradicates the definable starting point I was grasping for.
You're welcome, mosassam. I think you have an excellent brand of logic. You seem to get right to the point using English without the difficult and cryptic symbolism of mathematics or symbolic logic.

Let me try to interpret what you said here using your own brand of logic:

There must always be some kind of starting point -- for anything. In particular, there must be some kind of starting point for existence, which we could call the essence, or the ontologically fundamental stuff. There must also be some kind of starting point for any explanation, or for any other language structure for that matter.

The starting point has to be definable in both cases. In the language case, it is straightforward. Langauge structures, such as explanations, or novels, must have a set of defined words to begin with or they will make no sense. In the ontological case, it is a little more subtle.

The starting point for existence has to be definable, i.e. in the situation (universe, world) in which we find ourselves we must assign tags to things we think exist simply in order to talk about them. The assignment of tags constitutes definition, so anything we can assign a tag to is definable.

But, ... the starting point for existence does not necessarily have to be defined. At least not for the early stages of existence. Definable, yes; defined, not necessarily.

So what, exactly, constitutes a definition? Here's my proposal. If we consider 'information' to mean a difference that makes a difference, then an undefined set of "things", which make up existence or reality, may contain differences among the "things". And those differences could make a difference to other "things". So a rudimentary or primordial "universe" could contain information without any definitions.

If we consider 'definition' to mean the assignment of a symbolic tag to some existing "thing", then in order for there to be a definition, there would have to be some kind of assignment. That is, there would have to be a correspondence between some symbolic tag and some existing "thing".

But what does that correspondence require? We could probably conceive of several sufficient conditions for a correspondence.

One of those conditions might be a physical connection or relationship between a physical, or extant, "thing" and a symbol which is also constructed from physical, or extant, "things". For example, a particular amino acid group, which is a physical, extant, "thing", could have a relationship to a specific sequence, called a codon, (or set of specific sequences) of three nucleotides taken from the set {A, C, T, G}. The relationship between a codon and a particular amino acid group would be specified by another physical, extant, "thing", viz. tRNA. In this example, and in this case, we have a correspondence which involves nothing but physical, extant, "things".

Another condition for correspondence might be between a physically, extant, "thing" and a concept in the "mind" of a "knower". I won't define 'mind' or 'knower' just yet because those refer to the profound mystery of consciousness that we are at work exploring. We have an idea of what we mean by 'knowing', and 'idea', or 'concept', so using your brand of logic, let's just go with our own notions of what we mean by these terms.

So, in this case, and using the previous example, we could imagine a correspondence between an amino acid group and a sequence of three of the letters A, C, T, and G. The triad of letters is the tag. The letters are merely linguistic concepts -- an agreement among users of some languages to use them to refer to some "things" with the expectation that most of the people using them mean the same "things" by each letter.

Now, are those linguistic concepts extant "things"? Well, yes they exist so they must be.

Are they physical things? Well, that is debatable. You could say that the letters are made of ink molecules arranged in a specific pattern on paper. That would make them physical. Similarly, an uttered phoneme, called 'A', would be made of a pattern of vibrating air molecules which is also physical. But if we try to pin down the nature of the idea or the concept of a letter, like 'A', we enter the controversial domain of whether concepts are nothing more than, or are something beyond, mere patterns of physical brain states.

I think we can sidestep this issue for the moment. Just as we can dodge the problem of defining terms like 'I', 'you', 'we', etc., I think we can dodge the question of exactly what constitutes a concept. We know what concepts are so I think it is fair for us to talk about them. (You will notice that the previous sentence is rife with terms that are vague, if not undefined, if not undefinable, but we understand it nonetheless.)

So, to finally get to my point, I think that there are two fundamentally different kinds of relationships that can connect symbols to "things", i.e. there are two fundamentally different ways of defining a "thing". The first way is strictly through physical connections. The second is a conceptual connection of a conceptual symbol and a physical "thing".

If you agree with me so far, the next move I would make would be to define the second of those types to be 'knowing'. That is, given that a conceptual symbol is related to a physical "thing", 'knowing' is defined as the existence of that relationship in whatever it is that constitutes a concept. Without knowing what that is, it will be convenient to assign the tag 'mind' to it so we can talk about it. This yields the claim that a "thing" can be defined by the process of a mind making an assignment of some conceptual symbol to the "thing". When such an assignment has been made, we can say that the mind knows the definition. Or we can say that the mind knows the meaning of the symbol: the symbol means the "thing".

Now, if this makes sense to anyone, I think it can be a starting point for speculating on what the nature of the origin of reality might have been like. I think it would be fun to engage in that kind of speculation. We might even be able to get a glimpse of how reality emerged "from the mists of the undefined" and how the definable starting point was necessarily eradicated.

If, on the other hand, what I said does not make sense, please tell me about it.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #326
Well, there certainly has been a lot of posting on this thread since I last looked at it.

Mosassam, I would say you are definitely "getting a handle on this". I only have a few simple comments to make on your post.
mosassam said:
With regards to the "flawless Solution" presented above:
The "past of interest" = the collection of specific presents that relate to the part of reality the Solution has been created to explain.
The "past of interest" contains the collection/set of valid ontological elements specifically concerned with the Solution. (not sure about 'contains')
I would have said, "the past of interest consists of the collection of 'presents' which consists of the valid ontological elements being added" (you can think of that as "additional knowledge of reality learned" since I have defined the "valid ontology" to be "reality"). Remember, we are working with an ideal case where there are no invalid ontological elements to confuse us and the Solution is, by definition, without flaw: i.e., it provides a perfect description of the known past for each and every present going to make up that past. Notice that, at every past (the knowledge available to you prior to "learning a specific present") conforms to that flawless solution: i.e., the solution includes explanation of that additional knowledge. This is the crux of being flawless.

You should understand (and I think you do) that the predictions made by this "flawless" speculative edifice are confirmed by the past. The future is still "totally unknown" (the future is unknown by definition) and it is an assumption that the specific solution referred to will still be flawless at the next step. That is to say, the flawless solution can only be flawless with respect to the past. I am setting up this problem the way I am because this approach gets out of the "thought to be flawless" difficulty.
mosassam said:
Given that we fully understand the Solution it is now possible to define the ontological elements upon which the Solution is based.
The only comment I would make here is that your comment seems to flow from the common concept that there exists but one flawless solution. That is an assumption made by almost everyone and an assumption to be avoided. It is entirely possible that there are a multitude of flawless solutions. For that reason, it is important that our notation not constrain our analysis to the assumption that any given solution will remain flawless. I suspect that might be hard for you to get your head around: i.e., how we can establish that our notation is not bounded by any specific solution.
AnssiH said:
What do you mean with "set of references" (of specific ontological elements)? I.e what does it mean to "refer to a specific element", is it not the same as "defining an ontological element"?
No it isn't. Consider the issue of defining a specific concept. One can cast that problem as an issue between two people (one who knows what he means and the other for whom the concept is still undefined) but you should be aware that even when you are trying to define something to yourself you are very much in the same boat. The process usually starts with a description of what is meant and, when further discussion reveals misunderstanding (or inconsistent conclusions), further communication us used to clarify things. During this period, one can not consider the second party as understanding the definition so, to him (or her), the concept is still undefined though they may very well have agreed upon a reference tag for what they are discussing (I won't comment on the whether the first party really understands their own definition or not; that is a subtle issue). But what you must remember, if you are going to be open minded and objective, is that, even after you have reach what seems to be a consensus, the possibility exists that there is still a misunderstanding there which just hasn't yet become an issue. You must always hold the idea (that you understand something) to be an assumption.
AnssiH said:
Similarly I'm not grasping what does it mean to "work with reference labels of ontological elements"... is that something you were supposed to clarify in the next step?
Hopefully, yes!

(Paul, I do indeed forgive you for indulging in the fun of discussing our speculative edifices; however I have this driving need to point out exactly where you are speculating. Sorry about that; I just want to be sure you aren't confused by what I am saying.
Paul Martin said:
There must always be some kind of starting point -- for anything. In particular, there must be some kind of starting point for existence, which we could call the essence, or the ontologically fundamental stuff. There must also be some kind of starting point for any explanation, or for any other language structure for that matter.
Yes there does, but it is very important that we don't convince ourselves that we know what that starting point "IS".
Paul Martin said:
The starting point has to be definable in both cases. In the language case, it is straightforward. Langauge structures, such as explanations, or novels, must have a set of defined words to begin with or they will make no sense.
You should understand that it is the very nature of understanding anything which requires a speculative edifice. Even that "set of defined words" you just mentioned is a speculative edifice. For most it is a fairly flaw free speculative edifice but I am sure you have had experience with people whose "speculative edifice" contained a word meaning different from yours (jokes are often built on that very issue).
Paul Martin said:
The assignment of tags constitutes definition, so anything we can assign a tag to is definable.
I think that is a little facile; see my comment to AnssiH above.
Paul Martin said:
But, ... the starting point for existence does not necessarily have to be defined. At least not for the early stages of existence. Definable, yes; defined, not necessarily.
Any definition is a component of a speculative edifice, unless you consider the reference tag itself to be a definition (a somewhat different matter and not at all what is commonly meant as a definition). Existence is the very issue of ontology.
Paul Martin said:
So a rudimentary or primordial "universe" could contain information without any definitions.
Let us say that we need an ontology in order to talk about it and we ought to look very carefully at exactly how we come to define that ontology.

The notation I will use will be quite close to Rade's notation. I will refer to a specific "present" as a specific set B where the actual elements of that specific set B will be references to the ontological elements going to make up that B: i.e.,
B_t \;\;=\;\; <a_1,a_2,a_3,\cdots,a_n>

where the a_i are reference labels to the undefined ontological elements which go to make up the specific "present" being referred to and the subscript "t" identifies the specific "present" of interest. I suspect it might benefit anyone interested in understanding me to read a post I made almost two years ago to the thread, "Can Everything be Reduced to Pure Physics". There are a few minor differences between the notation and references I am going to use but the issue is very much the same. (Before pointing to it, I wanted to look at it myself and found the following quote quite to the point of Rade's complaints.)
Doctordick said:
To put it another way, knowing is having facts available to you (the facts come from the past, not the future) and understanding allows discrimination between good and bad answers (facts you might expect to become available to you in the future). Now the human race has become quite good at this discrimination since all we living things first crawled out of the sea. We are the undoubted leaders in the realm of "understanding" the world around us. And yet no one has come up with a good argument to dismiss the Solipsist position. The fact that we have come so far without being able to prove what is and what is not real should make it clear to you that understanding reality can not possibly require knowing what is real. :approve: This is why every serious scientist (I except myself of course[/color]) has vociferously argued against any rational consideration of the question. Their position is: if we don't know what's real, how can we possibly dream of understanding reality. They hold that we must assume we know what's real. You can see that position promulgated all over this forum! Why do you think they label me a crackpot? :smile:
Have fun -- Dick
 
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  • #327
Doctordick said:
...Their position is: if we don't know what's real, how can we possibly dream of understanding reality. They hold that we must assume we know what's real...
Well, I would not agree with your conclusion--I would say that [if we do not know what is real, how can we understand] is the same as saying [if we do know what is real, how can we not understand], and then conclude "they hold that we must know we know what's real". There is no"thing" to be "assumed" in your argument, for to say you "know" some"thing" is real is nothing more than to say you have a mental grasp of a fact(s) of what is real. I hold your argument from "assumption" here is misplaced.

Another comment. Why do you use "reference labels" <a1,a2,a3> to map the "undefined ontological elements" of reality <A1,A2,A3> ? Why do you "assume" that you need to refer to a "specific present" Bt indirectly ? Much better it seems to me to start your argument of a specific present with:

Bt = <A1,A2,A3,...An>​

That is, start your argument directly from understanding that you can mentally grasp the facts of the ontological elements that exist directly without requirement of explanation or any assumption that they first be mapped to reference labels. Better yet, let me suggest this:

Bt = <(a1A1),(a2A2),(a3A3)...(anAn)>​

for here we see that when we say we know any specific undefined ontological element in a specific present (say A1) we understand that our knowledge is always a dialectic union of that which exists (A1) and the reference label (a1) that we are required to place on it in order to move it from preception to conception.

So, Dr. D. I do agree with your statement ...understanding reality can not possibly require knowing what is real...for we can never know the (A1) directly, thus, understanding reality requires knowing that what we know can only be the dialectic of what is to be known (A1) and the reference label (a1) placed on it by the knower.
 
  • #328
Paul Martin said:
...So, if "Nothing exists but semantical structures of the "If...then" variety", what can we conclude? Well, I say we can conclude that there must exist some sort of "mind" (if that word is too loaded, call it "thing", or "X", or whatever you like) which knows of those semantic structures. And so it seems to me that an ability to know is essential...What do you think?
I think I completely disagree with your philosophy. I think your X-factor is "derived" from the metaphysical given, let us call it the E-factor (after existence). It is the age old question, starting a philosophy from the "primacy of existence" vs the "primacy of consciousness".
 
  • #329
Doctordick said:
The only comment I would make here is that your comment seems to flow from the common concept that there exists but one flawless solution. That is an assumption made by almost everyone and an assumption to be avoided. It is entirely possible that there are a multitude of flawless solutions. For that reason, it is important that our notation not constrain our analysis to the assumption that any given solution will remain flawless. I suspect that might be hard for you to get your head around: i.e., how we can establish that our notation is not bounded by any specific solution.
This has thrown me a bit. Do you mean that the set of valid ontological elements may possibly produce numerous flawless solutions? (Up to this point I've understood that the set of VOE's relates to the specific flawless epistemological solution you had proposed above). Or do you mean that there possibly exists a multitude of flawless solutions but they are based on different (yet possibly overlapping) sets of VOE's, as they explain different aspects of reality?
Am I right in thinking that reference tags are labels used for each undefined ontological element so that we can communicate about them (ie: although they are labelled they are still undefined.)
Does each present (change in knowledge) relate to learning a 'new' ontological element?
 
  • #330
Rade said:
I think I completely disagree with your philosophy. I think your X-factor is "derived" from the metaphysical given, let us call it the E-factor (after existence). It is the age old question, starting a philosophy from the "primacy of existence" vs the "primacy of consciousness".

Yes. I think you have put your finger squarely on the difference betwen our respective philosophies.

Warm regards,

Paul
 
  • #331
Well, mosassam, you threw me for a moment there; I couldn't figure out what a "VOE" was. After reading over the thread, I decided that the only reference which made sense was that "VOE" stood for "valid ontological element" so I will presume that is what you meant and (for the moment at least) I will use that shorthand.

Yes indeedy do; the set of "VOE's" relates directly to every possible "flawless epistemological solution" and, no, they are not based on "different" sets. Every solution is explaining exactly the same set of elements, but those elements are not at all necessarily defined the same in different solutions. Remember, their definitions are deduced from the specific solutions.
mosassam said:
Am I right in thinking that reference tags are labels used for each undefined ontological element so that we can communicate about them (i.e.: although they are labeled they are still undefined.)
Absolutely correct, the sole purpose of the labels ai(t) is so that we can refer to a specific "VOE" which has not been defined.
mosassam said:
Does each present (change in knowledge) relate to learning a 'new' ontological element?
If an ontological element is "what exists" and every "epistemological solution" has at its base "what exists" then, so long as those elements are undefined, each present (or change in knowledge) must be something new; so, with regard to our analysis, we must regard it as something new. On the other hand, once you have a "specific epistemological solution" and can use that solution to define those "VOE's" (to use your notation). At that point, your speculative edifice may very well have the same defined element in two different presents.

*** "Ah, you have seen the same thing twice!" [/color]***​

But you certainly cannot prove it; you have to remember, it may be flawless but it is still a speculative edifice.

In fact, the next step is intimately related to that very fact. Having an understood specific flawless epistemological solution, (in this simplified case where all ontological elements are valid) one can place a specific label on every ai(t) for every "present" going to make up the past upon which the solution is based. At this point, the problem can be seen as totally equivalent to interpreting a collection of statements in a language. Every "B(t)" can be seen as a statement in this symbolic language (those specific numerical labels you have placed upon the elements). It is a pure decoding problem; in fact, since you have used your specific epistemological solution to apply those labels, if you understood the solution, you will certainly also understand the meanings of the labels. "Knowing these definitions (which are part and parcel of the solution) makes it a complete expression of that speculative edifice.

Now, tell me how that hits you. If you have any problems with it, we can discuss them.

I'll be back -- Dick
 
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  • #332
Yes, VOE = Valid Ontological Element.
I understand that the set of VOEs can possibly produce numerous flawless Solutions and that for each Solution, the definition for each VOE may change, as the definition is 'embedded' in that particular Solution.
Are there numerous flawless Solutions to this set because we are using different combinations of VOE's, or are there numerous Solutions because we still use the complete set but the definitions for each VOE changes with any given Solution?
I still have a problem with the "presents". The Solution has different 'aspects' (the different part of the Solution each VOE relates to). I may be overcomplicating things here (or more likely barking up the wrong tree) but I imagine that each "present" (change in knowledge) can relate to a complete VOE or PART OF A VOE. What I mean by this is that some changes in knowledge may lead onto other changes in knowledge and so on. This way, a VOE (which describes a certain aspect of the Solution) may consist of a collection of "presents" or, sometimes a change in knowledge may contain a complete VOE.
I'm not explaining this correctly, but the Solution is based on the collection of VOE's, and each VOE can either be a single 'present' or a collection of 'presents'.
If you can understand any of the above questions, let alone answer them, then cool.
PS: I don't understand why the "speculative edifice may very well have the same defined element in two different presents" .
 
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  • #333
I would like to jump in here, to continue my thoughts posted above, and the information about VOEs from the last two posts (I will use the notation of Dr. D so that he can correct my errors in thinking). I will start with a number of "let" type premises (in blue)

1. Let VOE = a single valid ontological element, call it A1
[not sure what a non-valid OE would be, but let us not go there now]

2. Let the set of all possible VOEs in existence = <A1,A2,A3,...An>
[I take it that Dr. D. holds that the individual VOE of existence are "undefined", more importantly they are "outside" the process called "explanation" or "assumption"--I call this the axiom that "existence exists"--he apparently calls it "starting from undefined ontology". Thus I hold that it is not possible for humans to "know" directly any VOE (I think Dr. D also ?, which leads to...]

3. Let a1 = a "reference label" for the VOE A1
[This is a mental process mapping perception to concept formation]

4. Let knowledge of VOE A1 = the dialectic union set (aiA1)
[Here I think I differ from Dr.D--but not yet sure. That is, I hold that because it not possible for humans (or any material thing) to "know" any VOE directly, all knowledge of any VOE is a veiled reality of placing a reference label on a metaphysical given VOE]

5. Let Bt1 = any specific present (t1) from the set of all possible presents B
[This from Dr.D but I modify to clarify that there are an infinite number of specific presents (e.g., <t1,t2,t3...tn>)--here we deal with only one Bt1].

6. Let a set of "known" VOEs in present be: Bt1 = <(a1A1),(a2A2),(a3A3)>
[Here, to save space, I only let three VOEs be known in present, of course this could be any number, but can never be "all possible VOEs". The notation follows from my argument of veiled aspect of reality (the metaphysical given) as known by humans (our undefined epistemology or study of the metaphysical given. Thus we see here how there exists dialectic union between metaphysics and epistemology, but note (very important imo), that the "essence" of any VOE derives from epistemology and not metaphysics.

7. Let Bu, the set of unknown VOE in any solution to explanation of a "specific present" = <A4,A5,A6,...An>
[We see here that, from the set of all possible VOEs in #1 above, there must exist a set of VOEs that have never been mentally transformed in the specific present (Bt1) to form a reference label, that is, they are not "known" in specific present, but do "exist" in specific present]

8. Let the set <Bt1,Bt2,Bt3...Bt7> = (sum of all "specific presents"), which I will condense to the notation (Bt-all).
[This derives from facts of research on knowledge that it is possible for any single human to know more than one specific present at exactly the same time--from research the limit for most humans is ~ 7, that is, you can know at any time (t0) as many as 7 different "sets of VOEs" (what Dr. D is calling his Bt).

Thus, we see that, if from above the specific present Bt1 = <a1A1, a2A2, a3A3>, then specific present Bt2 could be notation of <a4A4, a5A5, a6A6...anAn>, and so on for Bt3...Bt7 (with a limit due to physiology of human brain of 7 specific presents at any single time (t0)).

So, this is where the notation (and philosophy) of Dr.D has taken my thinking in such a way that I see it forming union with my philosophy--perhaps this all just incorrect. (I do hope Dr.D not view this as another attempt to mock--it no such thing--it my attempt to find common ground between two philosophies held).

therefore, I conclude, and I will end here to see if there are any comments by anyone with an interest in such abstract thinking:

The present (t0) = {Bt-all + Bu}​

or in words: The present is the sum total of all the specific sets of VOEs we know at time (t0) derived from past plus what we have yet to learn of VOEs in future time (t0+1).
 
  • #334
Hi mosassam, your response was wonderful as it clarifies your difficulties quite well and I will do my best to clarify my position on each issue you seem to be having trouble with. And yes, you are over complicating things but that is a difficult thing to avoid as most all of us bring way too much baggage to the station (so to speak). It is quite difficult for people to lay aside their beliefs; after all, their very lives depend upon having viable beliefs.
mosassam said:
Are there numerous flawless Solutions to this set because we are using different combinations of VOE's, or are there numerous Solutions because we still use the complete set but the definitions for each VOE changes with any given Solution?
The various solutions I am talking about are all based on exactly the same set of VOE's but I think I should first make something clear. I am not actually claiming there are numerous flawless solutions. It may very well be that, with a sufficiently large set of VOE's, there exists but one flawless solution but one certainly cannot make such an assumption (it implies that solution is truth). In analyzing the problem of finding explanations (that is, of understanding reality, that collection of VOE's one is trying to understand) one must allow for the possibility that there exist more than one unique flawless solution. By the way, is it clear to you that a "flawless solution" need not be a correct solution? The only constraint on a "flawless solution" is that no contradiction to it exists in the available information (the past upon which it is based). The future may very well invalidate any specific solution.

That comment, "but the definitions ... change", kind of puts the emphasis in the wrong place. The point is that a specific "past" can be explained in more than one way given that the "past" consists of a finite number of elements. It is pretty clear that there are an infinite number of ways of explaining a finite set as infinite merely means "no matter how many you have, you are not yet finished enumerating them". It follows that the "past" upon which your solution is base is finite (you cannot acquire an infinite set of VOE's) and no matter how many explanations you have, it is possible another exists. But that's not an issue we should be getting into now. You can simply relate it to your world view as, "there is more than one way to skin a cat".
mosassam said:
I still have a problem with the "presents". The Solution has different 'aspects' (the different part of the Solution each VOE relates to). I may be overcomplicating things here (or more likely barking up the wrong tree) but I imagine that each "present" (change in knowledge) can relate to a complete VOE or PART OF A VOE.
The VOE has no parts. You have lost sight of the definition "valid ontological element" (that's one reason I really don't like "VOE" even though it saves a lot of typing). An "element" cannot be divided by definition; if division is possible, we are not talking about an element. That is the very central issue of the problem of "infinite regress".

There is that word infinite again! People simply seem to lose sight of the fact that "infinite" means you are not finished, no matter how much you have done. Any solution involving infinite regress cannot be flaw free as you cannot finish the job: i.e., it fails to provide an explanation. The "past" upon which your solution (that flaw free solution) is based cannot be infinite or you couldn't acquire the knowledge of it; your solution must be based upon a finite set of ontological elements (which cannot be divided).

Note that reality, the complete set of valid ontological elements, may very well be infinite. In fact, it should be clear that our only option is to presume it is infinite as to do otherwise is to presume one could reach the state of "knowing everything" with no possibility of error. So long as one includes the possibility of error in your knowledge of reality, you are not finished and that is the very definition of infinity.
mosassam said:
What I mean by this is that some changes in knowledge may lead onto other changes in knowledge and so on.
You should recognize that the moment you use the term, "may", you are discussing a speculative edifice. We are discussing a nature of a "flaw free solution" and how that "flaw free solution" is constrained by the fact that it is based upon a finite set of valid ontological elements. What I am getting at here is that, except for specific logical constraints on that "flaw free solution" which can be proved, we have utterly no interest in speculating as to the nature of that solution. I am quite confident that there are many possibilities which will never occur to us in a million years and we must be careful not to exclude one of them. Our solution explains the known past and the known past only. That is to say, there are no changes in knowledge here; the only changes which exist are expressed in that order of presents which define the structure of change in our past. Our solution must provide that structure, including those changes. Essentially, that past includes "changes in knowledge" which "lead onto other changes in knowledge and so on": i.e., you are talking about what you expect of that solution in terms of your current world view -- this is that baggage you are hauling with you.
mosassam said:
I'm not explaining this correctly, but the Solution is based on the collection of VOE's, and each VOE can either be a single 'present' or a collection of 'presents'.
A valid ontological "element" cannot be a collection of anything. It is "an element" and can not be divided. The "past" consists of a collection of "presents" and every "present" consists of a specific set of valid ontological elements (remember, we are working with an ideal problem not necessarily a real problem).
mosassam said:
PS: I don't understand why the "speculative edifice may very well have the same defined element in two different presents" .
Because the definition of those ontological elements is part of the speculative edifice. Let me put it this way (in terms of the speculative edifice most of us carry around as our personal world view) the other day, when you responded to my last post, you were typing in front of a monitor. Today, as you read this post, you are the same entity which read that earlier post. That entity is defined in terms of a number of ontological elements. It is part of your world view (your speculative edifice) that at least some of those ontological elements are the same ontological elements seen in two different "presents". But you certainly cannot prove that as all you have to go on is your memory; you cannot go back to that earlier past (in your understanding of the past) and check it. It is a presumption and very much a part of that speculative edifice called your world view! But it certainly explains your experiences (your past) so it might well be a flaw free solution and might even be a "true" solution; however, there is some difference between that element "then" and that element "now" so, to contend that they are the "same" ontological element is false on the face of it (it can be divided into that element "then" and that element "now").

I am sorry if my thoughts seem complex; I am only trying to express the problem in a manner which covers all the bases.

Back to you -- Dick
 
  • #335
I am sure this is a total waste of time as I don't believe Rade has any interest in understanding what I say; but I will do it anyway!
Rade said:
1. Let VOE = a single valid ontological element, call it A1
[not sure what a non-valid OE would be, but let us not go there now]
Fine, we can call it A1 :rolleyes:
Rade said:
2. Let the set of all possible VOEs in existence = <A1,A2,A3,...An>
[I take it that Dr. D. holds that the individual VOE of existence are "undefined", more importantly they are "outside" the process called "explanation" or "assumption"--I call this the axiom that "existence exists"--he apparently calls it "starting from undefined ontology". Thus I hold that it is not possible for humans to "know" directly any VOE (I think Dr. D also ?, which leads to...]
The definition is part and parcel of a speculative edifice! :cry:
Rade said:
3. Let a1 = a "reference label" for the VOE A1
[This is a mental process mapping perception to concept formation]
Why do you want two labels for the same VOE? :confused:
Rade said:
4. Let knowledge of VOE A1 = the dialectic union set (aiA1)
[Here I think I differ from Dr.D--but not yet sure. That is, I hold that because it not possible for humans (or any material thing) to "know" any VOE directly, all knowledge of any VOE is a veiled reality of placing a reference label on a metaphysical given VOE]
What purpose does it serve to define the union of one reference label with another reference lable for the same thing. :bugeye: Apparently you want to speculate about something ("I hold" seems to be a belief and not a fact!) :wink:
Rade said:
5. Let Bt1 = any specific present (t1) from the set of all possible presents B
[This from Dr.D but I modify to clarify that there are an infinite number of specific presents (e.g., <t1,t2,t3...tn>)--here we deal with only one Bt1].
I would say that to contend that any speculative edifice is based upon "an infinite number of specific presents" is patently false. It is a presumption of your personal speculative edifice (your world view). Intellectual baggage you insist on hauling around. Talk to Paul about it! :zzz:
Rade said:
6. Let a set of "known" VOEs in present be: Bt1 = <(a1A1),(a2A2),(a3A3)>
[Here, to save space, I only let three VOEs be known in present, of course this could be any number, but can never be "all possible VOEs". The notation follows from my argument of veiled aspect of reality (the metaphysical given) as known by humans (our undefined epistemology or study of the metaphysical given. Thus we see here how there exists dialectic union between metaphysics and epistemology, but note (very important imo), that the "essence" of any VOE derives from epistemology and not metaphysics.
Is not the "essence" of a VOE its meaning? Can you give me an epistemological solution without an ontology? Or are you just trying to avoid discussing ontology? I think you just like "mock battles" with speculative edifices. :smile: :smile:
Rade said:
7. Let Bu, the set of unknown VOE in any solution to explanation of a "specific present" = <A4,A5,A6,...An>
[We see here that, from the set of all possible VOEs in #1 above, there must exist a set of VOEs that have never been mentally transformed in the specific present (Bt1) to form a reference label, that is, they are not "known" in specific present, but do "exist" in specific present]
That seems to be an element of your personal speculative edifice (your world view)! A pure presumption and you certainly cannot prove it. You apparently cannot see around all that baggage you carry with you. :biggrin:
Rade said:
8. Let the set <Bt1,Bt2,Bt3...Bt7> = (sum of all "specific presents"), which I will condense to the notation (Bt-all).
[This derives from facts of research on knowledge that it is possible for any single human to know more than one specific present at exactly the same time--from research the limit for most humans is ~ 7, that is, you can know at any time (t0) as many as 7 different "sets of VOEs" (what Dr. D is calling his Bt).
This again is part and parcel of your personal speculative edifice and has utterly no bearing upon what I am talking about. It is no more than intellectual baggage serving no purpose at all.
Rade said:
I will end here ...
I wish you would.
Rade said:
... to see if there are any comments by anyone with an interest in such abstract thinking:
You mean, interested in charging off towards some speculative edifice with no thought as to the ontological foundations? There are plenty of people who just love to do that but I regard it as a major waste of time. :-p

Have fun -- Dick
 
  • #336
Excellent--I see that Dr. D and I finally reach common understand on a fundamental "speculative edifice" from which both of our respective philosophies are derived--thus

Originally Posted by Rade:
1. Let VOE = a single valid ontological element, call it A1

Comment of Dr. D:
"Fine, we can call it A1"

And I find in communication with Dr. D. that one must be very happy indeed with just these small areas of common understanding.

Now, logic demands that if, as stated by Dr. D., A1 = a VOE of a specific type, then A2 must = a VOE of a second type, and A3 a VOE of a third type and so on, thus the set of all VOEs must be the sum total of all such VOEs.

Now, since Dr. D has already made it very clear that he does not agree with this logic--since he :cry: at the very thought of it--I will request that he not waste mine time (nor his) in any second response here--but I would be very interested to see if others that read this thread either (1) do agree or (2) do not agree with the statement below, and their reasons:

Let the set of all possible VOEs in existence = <A1,A2,A3,...An>​

Given that we start with the speculative edifice of Dr. D:
Let VOE = a single valid ontological element, call it A1---Fine, we can call it A1​
 
  • #337
Is there such thing as illusion? Or is it just a misconstrued, neuronal event? I mean, just because a concept like time doesn't exist outside of the horizon of our neuronal awareness doesn't mean it is an illusion.
 
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  • #338
Hi again,

The other day, someone (not on this forum) asked me for clarification on an issue I thought was quite obvious (it certainly wasn't obvious to him and I suspect it might not be obvious to those on this forum). He was talking about the foundations of arguments and I had said to him that an assertion of his was a violation of the limitations which he should be imposing on the problem of understanding "foundations". He said he didn't understand what I meant and my answer to him was as follows:
Doctordick said:
With regard to the limitations which should be imposed on the problem of understanding "foundations", my position is quite simple. If one looks at the fundamental issue of "foundations", foundations are what the arguments are based upon. If those arguments are based on anything at all, the arguments themselves are not foundations (the foundations are what they are based upon).

This is the very source of "infinite regress". As infinite means that (no matter what you have done) you are not finished, "infinite regress" is clearly not a solution. The only rational answer to the question is that philosophical foundations must be based on nothing! Now most people immediately jump to the conclusion that such a position is equivalent to solipsism and presume the only possible result is either infinite regress or solipsism, neither of which is really acceptable. What they miss is that there is another possibility: foundations might exist but they can not be known: i.e., they can not be defined and must be handled as "unknowns", a mathematical concept. Philosophers seem to have a very difficult time understanding the concept of working with unknowns.
I hope you guys can understand what I just said.

Have fun -- Dick
 
  • #339
Just a quick reply...

Paul Martin said:
That also seems to be closer to my worldview than to yours.

That's probably because I was quoting you from post #303 :)

Some time ago, you and I expressed different views of what might be ultimately fundamental. You thought it might be motion; I think it is the ability to know.

Actually I said, in discussion about the nature of time, that it is often useful to think of motion as more fundamental than time (i.e. to assume that time is a concept with which we handle reality in our mind), and I have clarified that this is just another semantical take on this particular aspect of subjective experience that it is "changing". (Of course I understand that any words, including "changing", is implying one particular sort of worldview that is based on assumptions...)

In other words, and I quote you again:
"Of course we know that we are both guessing and that neither of us can prove our hunch. But we can still talk about it and try to make sense of our guesses."

:)

To interpret your statement, I think we should change "We have nothing but" to "Nothing exists but". That way we don't have to define 'We', which gets all bogged down in identity, self, consciousness, etc., and we don't have to define 'have', which must be some kind of process which again only adds complexity.

Well yeah. I mean, it was your statement, but I know what you mean of course, and actually the way I usually see and word it is that it is the subjective experience that exists by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models of reality. I.e. that reality is not actually made of semantical structures, but the subjective experience cannot be about reality "the way it exists". There are many reasons why I have chosen to see it this way, and it doesn't seem to me to be too hard to figure out. Yet too many people cling onto empirical evidence as a proof that our models - the way we think about systems or reality - is really the way reality exists. It seems absolutely crazy to me to assume it to be so once you look at how we know anything at all.

-Anssi
 
  • #340
AnssiH said:
Well yeah. I mean, it was your statement,
Touche. How careless of me. (Years ago Dr. Dick told me I needed to be more careful when I talk to smart people. He was right; and you are among the smartest people I have ever talked to. Sorry.)
AnssiH said:
but I know what you mean of course, and actually the way I usually see and word it is that it is the subjective experience that exists by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models of reality. I.e. that reality is not actually made of semantical structures, but the subjective experience cannot be about reality "the way it exists".
I agree. I like the way you expressed it.
AnssiH said:
There are many reasons why I have chosen to see it this way, and it doesn't seem to me to be too hard to figure out.
I also have a few reasons for choosing to see it this way. I am curious about how much overlap there is between your reasons and mine.
AnssiH said:
Yet too many people cling onto empirical evidence as a proof that our models - the way we think about systems or reality - is really the way reality exists. It seems absolutely crazy to me to assume it to be so once you look at how we know anything at all.
I agree.
AnssiH quoting Paul Martin said:
But we can still talk about it and try to make sense of our guesses.
When I think about the ultimate origin of reality, here's what makes sense to me. I'll parse your statement: "it is the subjective experience that exists by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models of reality."

First, I assume that "it is the subjective experience that exists" at the outset. I.e., the subjective experience is ontologically fundamental. It seems reasonable to suppose that that subjective experience has the ability to know. That is, it doesn't make much sense to talk about experience if the experience isn't, or can't be, known.

At the very beginning, nothing would be known because there was nothing to know. But, there really would be something to know, viz. the fact that nothing was known. If, somehow, this fact did indeed become known, i.e. the subjective experience experienced, or realized, that fact, then that event, or process of changing state from "not knowing" to "knowing" would constitute what we could call a "system".

The change of state I mentioned would provide a new experience for the subjective experience which would increase the set of facts, or "things" available to the subjective experience.

So, at this stage, it seems that there would be a chicken-egg relationship between the subjective experience and the set of facts, or information that have been (were, are) experienced. They would grow together. And, this would obviously introduce change and time into reality.

At some point, it seems reasonable that the subjective experience would experience something akin to pattern recognition, particularly in some repetitive part of the "system". And the experience of any pattern, would be a different "kind" of experience from that of mere information. The relationship between a pattern and the underlying information could be seen as a semantical relationship. That is, the identification of a pattern could be seen as a symbol standing for the experience of the pattern in the underlying information.

So, by this point, reality would consist of "the subjective experience that exists by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models".

Now, the models are modeling some subset of the information that has been (is, was) experienced by the subjective experience, so, to make a slight modification to your statement, I would say that "it is the subjective experience that exists by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models of some subset of reality."
AnssiH said:
I.e. that reality is not actually made of semantical structures,
...because reality includes more than semantical structures; it also includes the primordial subjective experience.
AnssiH said:
but the subjective experience cannot be about reality "the way it exists".
...because the subjective experience cannot experience itself.

What do you think?

Warm regards,

Paul
 
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  • #341
Paul Martin said:
First, I assume that "it is the subjective experience that exists" at the outset. I.e., the subjective experience is ontologically fundamental. It seems reasonable to suppose that that subjective experience has the ability to know. That is, it doesn't make much sense to talk about experience if the experience isn't, or can't be, known.
I would disagree with this point. The subjective experience does not know anything. Knowing requires a knower, which must be the "I" of subjective experience. Can one have an experience in which the "I" ceases to be? I know from personal experience the answer to be Yes! My favourite part of being a musician is jamming, which involves getting together with other people and making music up from scratch. Instantaneous creativity. During a successful jam the "I" has disappeared, the only reason I know this is because I am well aware of the "I" returning to say "This is great" or some such thing, which kills the moment. I don't have any memory of any jam I've ever done while it was happening because, I suppose, there was no "I" present to remember it. However, when listening back to a recording I am often amazed by my own heightened technical ability and the patterns or lines I've chosen to play which otherwise would never have occurred to me.The same thing happens when contemplating something of immense beauty, having a Eureka moment, and so on.
Two important points I would like to make:
1) The experience cannot be considered an experience until it has ended. Whilst happening it can be described as a state of being. Once over, the "I" comes rushing into claim it. The "I" smashes what has happened into thousands of pieces it can then analyse. The smashing up creates information. The "I" really doesn't like being left out of things, after all, Death can be seen as an "I"less state of being.
2) The state of being cannot be communicated. This can only happen once the "I" has smashed it up and, obviously, this is not the same thing.
If the rational mind can be said to be a crystallisation of the "I", and Science a crystallisation of the rational mind, I think we can see the limitation that science will always have in describing reality - namely, that it is a description.
I would venture reality as a state of being, open to all humans but one that cannot be communicated.
I am not sure, when you talk about subjective experience, whether it incorporates this "I"less state of being or whether you are beginning with the "I". If the latter, I'm not sure how subjective experience can then be considered 'fundamental'.
At the moment I am intrigued by Dr.D's notion of things "emerging from the undefined" as "I" must be considered an assumption.
 
  • #342
Doctordick said:
...With regard to the limitations which should be imposed on the problem of understanding "foundations", my position is quite simple. If one looks at the fundamental issue of "foundations", foundations are what the arguments are based upon. If those arguments are based on anything at all, the arguments themselves are not foundations (the foundations are what they are based upon). This is the very source of "infinite regress". As infinite means that (no matter what you have done) you are not finished, "infinite regress" is clearly not a solution. The only rational answer to the question is that philosophical foundations must be based on nothing! Now most people immediately jump to the conclusion that such a position is equivalent to solipsism and presume the only possible result is either infinite regress or solipsism, neither of which is really acceptable. What they miss is that there is another possibility: foundations might exist but they can not be known: i.e., they can not be defined and must be handled as "unknowns", a mathematical concept. Philosophers seem to have a very difficult time understanding the concept of working with unknowns.
Let me try to understand. First I sort the key points.

1. foundations are what the arguments are based upon. [this informs us we assume that foundations exist]
2. foundations must be based on nothing [yes, this is why they are called foundations--another term used is axiom--the axiom is based on nothing--it is from which all arguments are based upon]
therefore:
3. foundations might exist but they can not be known

But clearly we then have these additional logical possibilities to add to the argument:

4. foundations might exist but they can be known to be based on nothing [in which case the above argument is falsified]
5. foundations might exist but they can not be known directly only indirectly [in which case the above argument is clarified]
 
  • #343
I've been too busy these past days to even read the posts on this thread properly. Hopefully I'll be little bit faster in the future... but then what's the hurry, the world is not going anywhere (I assume :)

Paul Martin said:
The starting point for existence has to be definable, i.e. in the situation (universe, world) in which we find ourselves we must assign tags to things we think exist simply in order to talk about them.

Or to even think about reality.

Little bit later in the same post you said something that struck me as a bit odd:

Are they physical things? Well, that is debatable. You could say that the letters are made of ink molecules arranged in a specific pattern on paper. That would make them physical. Similarly, an uttered phoneme, called 'A', would be made of a pattern of vibrating air molecules which is also physical.

Perhaps it struck me as odd just because I'm interpreting you wrong, but I thought I'd comment just in case.

What do we mean when we say something (like an ink molecule) is "physical"? I thought in your philosophy too, ink molecules and all the smaller particles, including the so-called "fundamental particles" posited by any physical model, are still those "semantical things" that we have classified reality into. I.e. while there is reality behind them, it is an extra assumption to say they are "fundamental", i.e. possesses an identity to themselves.

To say they do have metaphysical identity to themselves is to confuse a physical model with ontology.. It shouldn't be too controversial in this day and age to say something like this, since there exists many alternative (and at this time valid) models where the fundamentals of the Standard Model are thought to be the "side effects" of some different fundamentals. In my opinion the large number of alternative models (that may or may not merge together) is accentuating beautifully this method of "understanding through semantical classification" that we are doing.

So, something being a "physical object" doesn't make it "more real" than any other semantical object, like a rainbow or any other interference pattern, or something like a pattern we have classified as letter "T". This is NOT to be confused with idealism. It is an epistemological assertion made from a completely materialistic framework.

Doctordick said:
Originally Posted by AnssiH
What do you mean with "set of references" (of specific ontological elements)? I.e what does it mean to "refer to a specific element", is it not the same as "defining an ontological element"?

No it isn't. Consider the issue of defining a specific concept. One can cast that problem as an issue between two people (one who knows what he means and the other for whom the concept is still undefined) but you should be aware that even when you are trying to define something to yourself you are very much in the same boat. The process usually starts with a description of what is meant and, when further discussion reveals misunderstanding (or inconsistent conclusions), further communication us used to clarify things. During this period, one can not consider the second party as understanding the definition so, to him (or her), the concept is still undefined though they may very well have agreed upon a reference tag for what they are discussing (I won't comment on the whether the first party really understands their own definition or not; that is a subtle issue). But what you must remember, if you are going to be open minded and objective, is that, even after you have reach what seems to be a consensus, the possibility exists that there is still a misunderstanding there which just hasn't yet become an issue. You must always hold the idea (that you understand something) to be an assumption.

Yeah I very much agree with the above (I'm sure we have all experienced that first hand many times on forums like these :)

And what you describe is exactly the case right now... After reading the above, I *think* in your conception "referring to an ontological element" is the same as "referring to an concept of an ontological element" (like referring to a concept of "photons")?

Before I was thinking that referring to an ontological element was done BY defining an entity that corresponds to certain phenomena (i.e. the entity that is thought to be responsible for certain phenomena, like thinking of "photon" or "mind" as a reference to some real phenomena that is nevertheless not really an "object with identity")

I hope you can pickup what I'm trying to say. It's reeeaallly seriously hard to try and communicate this unambiguously, exactly because of the problem you describe...

Rade said:
[This derives from facts of research on knowledge that it is possible for any single human to know more than one specific present at exactly the same time--from research the limit for most humans is ~ 7, that is, you can know at any time (t0) as many as 7 different "sets of VOEs"

What? :rolleyes:

Paul Martin said:
Touche. How careless of me. (Years ago Dr. Dick told me I needed to be more careful when I talk to smart people. He was right; and you are among the smartest people I have ever talked to. Sorry.)

Wow, thanks. You're not too shabby yourself.

When I think about the ultimate origin of reality, here's what makes sense to me. I'll parse your statement: "it is the subjective experience that exists by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models of reality."

First, I assume that "it is the subjective experience that exists" at the outset. I.e., the subjective experience is ontologically fundamental.

That's not what I was saying. I just refer to "subjective experience" instead of "mind" because the former implies less about the nature of our existence. "Thought happens", but we don't know how, and we don't know what "thoughts" are fundamentally. To assume that subjective experience is ontologically fundamental phenomenon seems to be very shaky assumption; not something I feel like building on (but that's just me :)

The latter part of the sentence should be revealing; "...exist by the virtue of some "system" making semantic models of reality". That is, subjective experience is a phenomenon that exist WHEN some "system" (system is also a semantical concept) models its environment by building semantical models of it. I.e. Subjective experience is NOT ontologicall fundamental (even if it is the starting point of our ontological considerations).

This is just one of the most succint ways to put it and it leaves out some very important requirements, one being what mosassam is describing in post #341. That is, that the system is modeling reality in such a sense that there exists a self. This "self" is a semantical concept that the system makes ABOUT REALITY and can express a situation in form of "self is perceiving" or "self is choosing" or "self is running" by its logical configuration. I.e. we could say it is only an assumption that there exists a "self" with identity (something that persists over time instead of that there only exists memories about a past of semantical "self"), and this assumption appears to be wrong in many ways.

(To continue on what Mosassam is talking about, many athletes have reported that after a peak performance they don't have any recollection of the performance itself... ...this is to be expected since if you have familiarized yourself with a certain pattern well enough, during the performance semantical ideas of "self" would only complicate the situation. You cannot think about the motions associated with playing a guitar too consciously or you will only mess things up. And when there doesn't exists semantics about "self performing" something, there can be no recollection or subjective experience of this at all... Same thing with infant amnesia where no semantical concept of "self" has been formed yet)

Likewise, when I say "reality is not actually made of semantical structures", I mean reality is not actually made of "fundamental entities with identity". That is to say, what we call a photon, is a phenomenon of some sort in reality, but when we are thinking about a system where there exists photons, we are thinking of "things with identity", while in reality no such identity can be claimed. Photon turns out to be just a handy way to model the situation.

It is still merely an assumption that subjective experience springs from some "system" performing such and such semantical classification of reality, and I certainly cannot explain WHY it would be so. But when you think about something like, how electrochemical patterns flow around in the brain, you are still only conscious of that semantical MODEL of reality where there exists such things as "electrochemical patterns" (or "electrons" and "chemicals" that you tack with identity) and consequently you could not hope for understanding properly the relationship between the models of reality that you hold, and the true reality of your "mind" (in so far that we can refer to it as a "mind")

At first this can seem little bit odd, not least because we certainly feel like we have identity to ourselves. But then it is not really possible to pin down what constitutes the identity of self, other than defining ourselves in some semantical form, like "our memories define ourselves". But it is possible to see ourself as a case of certain memories being expressed in a stable manner by certain configuration of reality.

In the end, any words I might use to describe this situation is a case of referring to semantical elements. It is not possible to have thoughts about systems without assuming identity of some sort, and for this reason it seems to us like there must exist some fundamentals with identity (something "to start with").

But if "identity" indeed is completely artificial (semantical) concept that bears NO MEANING TO REALITY WHATSOEVER, then all our thoughts about reality are always to some extent confused from the actual ontological nature of reality. This is pretty serious limitation to our thoughts :) (But not to our predictive capabilities, which is where all the advances in science exist)

-Anssi
 
  • #344
Who really knows?

I think on a much larger scale than our own existence we can treat ourselves as one single atom.We say things change but never came to the fact that things can repeat as well.Could this mean that when my life ends it will repeat in a shadow form with no difference.If someone says there was no start or no end,this means we are stuck in a continues repeat.In othere words I am here and have always been here,I also will be here.I am talking about what we see as present.We are our own universe, we were never put here, that would need a start.Energy has no start nor stop.All there is is an instant.I think awareness slows down time to us.Who really knows?
 
  • #345
AnssiH said:
This "self" is a semantical concept that the system makes ABOUT REALITY
Once again, your clarity shines through. The Self is not 'central', it is just another 'semantical concept ABOUT reality'. OOOOUUUUCH! But what observes this state of affairs. Thought? Simple awareness? (When I use the word 'observe' I literally mean it. Some things are reasoned constructs and some things can be just "seen". A problem I'm having with Dr.D's stuff is that I'm having to build an understanding using reason, I've not yet had the insight that allows me to "see" what he is driving at)
The System (you mention) that makes the semantical concept of the Self needs some clarification (I certainly don't want to be getting into some meta-self. Or do I?).
Thought seems to be the greatest obstacle in experiencing reality but when used correctly can provide the flash of insight that can almost allow one to glimpse the "fabric of reality" (perhaps). Physical reality is, to a certain extent, created by Thought. What is the nature of reality without Thought? Quantum Theory seems very close to reaching this point, but there doesn't seem to be a way it can 'cross the line'. (Warning - oversimplification:) an electron has properties "only when we're looking" (ie: only when thought is used). What is happening when we're not looking because I'm betting THAT is reality :bugeye:
In a previous post I'm sure you said you were dubious about consciousness having an effect at a quantum level (ie: effecting certain experiments). From the little I understand, I still have the lingering feeling it does, somehow. If you can, please clarify.
 
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  • #346
AnssiH said:
...But if "identity" indeed is completely artificial (semantical) concept that bears NO MEANING TO REALITY WHATSOEVER, then all our thoughts about reality are always to some extent confused from the actual ontological nature of reality...
But, your but conclusion is not necessarily a truth statement, for to say that a metaphysical entity has "identity" can be nothing more than saying that "identity" evolves from dialectic union of axioms of "existence" and "consciousness". To put it simply (as put by Ayn Rand):
Existence is Identity
Consciousness is Identification​
To hold that "identity as a concept bears no meaning to reality", is to say you hold that a metaphysical entity can exist apart from its characteristics, which is a completely artificial (semantical) concept because it leads to a contradictory conclusion that a metaphysical entity is a non-existent, which is a logical impossibility. I find that you attempt to force the concept of "identity" into a false dichotomy--to force it into either the camp of existence OR consciousness when it is nothing of the sort--it is a concept formed from the dialectic union of the two.
 
  • #347
Rade said:
To hold that "identity as a concept bears no meaning to reality"

The statement you are analysing is an If/Then statement. You have presented it as if some law is being laid down, which obviously it isn't.
My interpretation of what Anssi is saying is that thought fragments reality into different categories, classifications - identities. We divide reality into a list of contents which we label. This way we can communicate with each other. More importantly, it seems that thought must fragment reality so that it can think about reality (which, I believe, demonstrates the fundamental nature of thought - if it did not divide, thought would not exist).
However, IF this dividing process (allotting identities) has nothing to do with what reality actually is, THEN thought (the source and product of the dividing process) will never be able to grasp the true nature of reality.
If this is a correct interpretation I would say this - the reality I have just been referring to I have previously labelled the unified whole and have been viewing this as the "true" underlying reality that thought has separated us from. However, the "true" underlying reality may be the Yin/Yang interplay of thought (the particle) and unified whole (the wave). The balance of these complementary 'forces' (the wavicle?? (D'oh!:bugeye: )) may be fundamental reality.
(IJMTU)
PS: Any chance of getting back to Dr.D's stuff)
 
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  • #348
mosassam said:
.. the "true" underlying reality may be the Yin/Yang interplay of thought (the particle) and unified whole (the wave). The balance of these complementary 'forces' (the wavicle?? (D'oh!:bugeye: )) may be fundamental reality...
Yes, I agree with this logic that there is a dialectic (Yin/Yang) interplay that form a balance (or synthesis) to explan what you call the "underlying reality", that is, the ONLY reality that any human can "explain"--it is what I was trying to explain to Dr.D. with no success when I presented this modification to his first equation concerning the "present" in a previous post:
Let a set of "known" VOEs in present be: Bt1 = <(a1A1),(a2A2),(a3A3)...anAn>​
So given that VOEs are "valid ontological elements" in the present, the "true underlying reality of the specific present for you at a specific space and time" (Bt1) is the interplay of "thought" about three specific VOEs, what I symbolize as (a1,a2,a3) and the three specific undefined axiomatic VOEs (A1,A2,A3), and so, what you refer to as being the "balance" (or synthesis) is the right side of the equation for a "specific present"--it is for me the equation of your "wavicle":
<(a1A1),(a2A2),(a3A3)...anAn>​
Thus for me the balance of the Yin/Yang derives from the dialectic of onotology (the study of what exists as VOEs--the A1,A2,A3) and epistemology (the study of the "thought" of what exists as VOEs--the a1,a2,a3). The underlying reality is a quantum superposition based on use of mathematics to first differentiate "perception" of VOEs and then to integrate via thought to "concept" of VOEs. Perhaps we can say that the:
"explanation of underlying reality" = process of the calculus​
Let me know where this does not make sense.
 
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  • #349
Rade said:
to explan what you call the "underlying reality", that is, the ONLY reality that any human can "explain"
This doesn't tally with what I was saying. Before explaining why, I must confess that my last post (like so many of mine) can be viewed as bulls#*t, because they are my groping attempts to get to a 'model' of reality that feels right to me, one that makes maximum sense (to me) logically but also intuitively. (hardly scientific)
In the post I refer to three elements -
1) Thought (the Many, Divider, the Particle)
2) Unified Whole (the One, Unifier, the Wave)
3) and the balance of these two complementary "forces", Fundamental Reality
The only thing that can be explained of these three is Thought, and that hasn't even been accomplished with much success at the moment. The Unified Whole may be detectable but it cannot be communicated, and thus cannot be explained. As for Fundamental Reality, that fact of the matter is I've got a cheek even mentioning it, but for me there is a deep beauty to this simple explanation of affairs and that's all its got going for it.
As for the rest of your post - I'm using every ounce of brain power I have trying to get a handle on what Dr.D is going on about but (I think) you seem to have misunderstood what present actually means which, I believe, is - a change in knowledge. Once this change has occurred, the knowledge becomes 'known' and, thus, becomes the past. So, when you write
"...given that VOE's are "valid ontological elements" in the present...", you seems to be using present in a different way than Dr.D is.
PS: I would like to retract the word "wavicle" as it seems so bloody stupid!
 
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  • #350
I'll be speaking entirely through my particular worldview (acknowledge these are just my beliefs, although I haven't laid them on too shaky grounds I can assure you)

mosassam said:
Once again, your clarity shines through. The Self is not 'central', it is just another 'semantical concept ABOUT reality'. OOOOUUUUCH! But what observes this state of affairs. Thought? Simple awareness?

This is exactly where we should divorce from the intuitive idea where some thing must be "observing this state of affairs" (or we quickly end up to dualism and/or homunculus argument and/or naive realism). This is intuitive idea precisely because the brain builds a worldview by classifying it into "things"; one of these things is "self". By inventing such an object as "self", the "rational" interpretation of the sensory data turns into a form of "self is perceiving". In a purely materialistic stance, this must be enough for a subjective experience to occur, i.e. we assume that reality is such a place where this kind of process causes subjective experience (albeit our understanding of that very process is quite shaky since it is based on us classifying that process into "sensible things", while reality is not quite like that -> our own ontological nature is still shrouded from our thoughts)

Let me offer you some material for wrestling that idea of "being no one" properly into your system. Consider a thought experiment where you undergo an adult mitosis. That is, every cell in your body is copied and you split into two; both into the exact same physical state. Which one is the one where the "old you" will go? (Whose "point of view" your current self will assume?) To up the ante, ask yourself if you would agree to undergo an adult mitosis, and have another one of the copies killed, and have the other given a million dollars.

If you find yourself baffled by this thought experiment, it can only be because you have traces of "non-physical self" ideas left in your thinking. In a materialistic stance, the contents of your subjective experience are caused by certain configuration of the brain. With two configurations in the exact same state, there will be two subjective experiences both having the same memories, and both being convinced they are the same self that existed before the split. From this you can derive how there is no metaphysical identity to yourself from one moment to the next either.

For further clarity, let's view this matter from the point of view of natural evolution.

Dawkins describes nicely in "The Selfish Gene" how intelligence as a survival method came to be. Rather than reacting to the changes in the environment merely by the natural selection of the genes, the animal branch of the survival machines begun reacting to their environment by learning meaningful reactions to certain stimulus. That is, mobile organisms became able to react to dangers immediately; this obviously improves their changes in the gene pool. In other words, first iterations of simple sensory systems & nervous systems turned up into the scene. These are basically relatively simple systems, with simple reactions to certain stimulus; hardly a case of something having a subjective experience.

We can see that it would be extremely beneficial for an organism to be able to predict events in its environment rather than to just react in a straightforward manner to certain stimulus. I.e. to be able to recognize a rock that is rolling towards it, and to be able to predict it is going to get hit unless it does something.

After many iterations, the nervous systems become able to do just that; to predict reality. For some system to predict some scene, it must model it, by classifying it into "sensible components" to which it assumes certain behaviour, and consequently it can "simulate" how those components behave together (Much like we perform weather simulations by modeling the weather system). In a sense, this is what the brain is; a machine that runs a simulation of reality, so to be able to make rational predictions.

The point to stress here is precisely that idea about the brain classifying reality into sensible components. I suspect this sounds very familiar to you, but it has to be understood precisely. When you are looking at a ball that flies through your field of view, the brain is basically receiving bunch of spatial/temporal patterns flowing into different parts of the cortex as the ball moves in your view. For the system to be able to interpret this avalanche of patterns as a "single ball in motion", quite a few things have to happen. At a sufficiently high abstraction level we can say simply refer to this processas a case of spatial/temporal patterns being interpreted against a worldview. It is that worldview which contains the information about what sorts of "things" exist and how they behave.

Note that at all times, this whole recognition process is done for predictive purposes. If the brain recognizes that avalance of patterns as a case of a ball in flight, and it has assumed certain behaviour to balls, it can immediately draw a meaningful prediction about where that ball is going to land. Basically any activity you do can be seen as a case of prediction through semantical model of reality.

Now, as the nervous systems kept improving and became capable of forming more and more sophisticated worldviews, the resulting behaviour of the organisms became "more intelligent". I.e. they could figure things out with greater accuracy, and use more complex reasoning and form more and more abstract concepts to their advantage. At some point when such a system becomes capable enough, and it forms concepts like "existence" and "reality", it cannot help but draw such an assumption about its sensory data, that it exists itself! This is basically a case of "self" becoming a semantical concept of that worldview (It requires quite a few assumptions about reality before assumptions about self come to exist). And this is basically how we all become aware of ourselves during the first years of our lives. Helen Keller has said that the first time she realized there is a reality out there, was the first time she also realized "she existed", and she says "that was the first time consciousness existed in me" (or something akin to that).

And like you noted, we regularly lose subjective experience for moments, when the brain just doesn't happen to interpret the situation in the form of "self experiencing" (or "self-reflection" might exist in very weak sense)

I suspect if you now take a look at the book description and the first pages of:
https://www.amazon.com/dp/0262633086/?tag=pfamazon01-20
it will make a lot of sense to you.

(When I use the word 'observe' I literally mean it. Some things are reasoned constructs and some things can be just "seen".

You have gotten over naive realism though? There must exist an interpretation of the sensory data (that avalance of patterns) before it turns into a subjective experience. That interpretation is done against a worldview that is a semantical construction, in that it is built out of certain assumptions about reality.

The System (you mention) that makes the semantical concept of the Self needs some clarification (I certainly don't want to be getting into some meta-self. Or do I?).

Not really. The explanation can be as mundane as to just look at the physical functions of the brain and understanding them in an appropriate logical level. The reason I say "a system" rather than "a brain" is that the former implies less about the nature of ourselves. The brain is what we understand through our worldview. It is completely circular reasoning to say what I'm saying, since I am basing my arguments on the worldview whose existence I am trying to describe. Little bit tricky state of affairs :)

Thought seems to be the greatest obstacle in experiencing reality but when used correctly can provide the flash of insight that can almost allow one to glimpse the "fabric of reality" (perhaps).

Yeah. In that we can tell how some of our tacit ideas may be dead wrong.

Physical reality is, to a certain extent, created by Thought. What is the nature of reality without Thought? Quantum Theory seems very close to reaching this point, but there doesn't seem to be a way it can 'cross the line'. (Warning - oversimplification:) an electron has properties "only when we're looking" (ie: only when thought is used). What is happening when we're not looking because I'm betting THAT is reality :bugeye:
In a previous post I'm sure you said you were dubious about consciousness having an effect at a quantum level (ie: effecting certain experiments). From the little I understand, I still have the lingering feeling it does, somehow. If you can, please clarify.

This idea about subjective experience "collapsing" reality places some very specific constraints on the nature of that subjective experience (and reality). What I'm describing above for example, is directly contradicting such idealistic ideas.

A coherent idealistic worldview can be built, but the findings of quantum mechanics don't point at that direction very strongly, although these kinds of ideas are often spread to the general public (Probably because we are naturally drawn to mysteries). Copenhagen interpretation did not directly try to suggest that consciousness collapses wave function, but some people interpreted Copenhagen that way. This is because Copenhagen remained completely vague about what it means to observe something (so it is easy to interpret the idea as if only subjective experience is considered observation).

Anyway, in reality we don't have any observations that suggest that strongly towards idealistic schemes. There are mysterious observations, but it is by far more likely that they are mysterious because our model of reality is not the way reality really is; that some particularly sticky assumptions about reality are in fact dead wrong.

Which ones, who knows? Dr Dick is proposing a method for structuring our attempts.

Apologies for length

-Anssi
 
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