gikiian
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Consider the ODE y''+P(x)y'+Q(x)y=0.
If \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}Q(x) converge, can you call x_{o} a 'regular singular point' besides calling it an 'ordinary point'?
I am saying this because if \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}Q(x) converge, then \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})^{2}Q(x) will also converge. And for a second-order linear ODE for which \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})^{2}Q(x) converge, x_{o} is termed as a regular singular point.
If \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}Q(x) converge, can you call x_{o} a 'regular singular point' besides calling it an 'ordinary point'?
I am saying this because if \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}Q(x) converge, then \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})^{2}Q(x) will also converge. And for a second-order linear ODE for which \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})P(x) and \stackrel{limit}{_{x→x_{o}}}(x-x_{o})^{2}Q(x) converge, x_{o} is termed as a regular singular point.
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