Isomorphic between plane and line

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the concept of isomorphism between different mathematical structures, specifically questioning whether there exists an isomorphism from \(\mathbb{R}^2\) to \(\mathbb{R}^1\). The scope includes theoretical considerations of isomorphisms in various contexts such as topology, set theory, and group theory.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Technical explanation, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that there is an isomorphism between the open interval (0,1) and the real line \(\mathbb{R}^1\).
  • Another participant questions the meaning of isomorphism in this context, prompting clarification.
  • A participant clarifies that they are referring to a structure-preserving bijective map from \(\mathbb{R}^2\) to \(\mathbb{R}^1\).
  • It is suggested that the relevant structure for consideration may be topology, with a claim that no such isomorphism exists, supported by a proposed proof involving a subset of \(\mathbb{R}^2\) shaped like the letter Y.
  • One participant mentions the existence of a Borel isomorphism between \(\mathbb{R}^2\) and \(\mathbb{R}\) and a group isomorphism between both spaces under addition, but notes that no map can be both a Borel isomorphism and a group isomorphism simultaneously.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the existence of isomorphisms between \(\mathbb{R}^2\) and \(\mathbb{R}^1\), with some asserting that no topological isomorphism exists while others point out specific types of isomorphisms that do exist, indicating a lack of consensus.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependence on the definitions of isomorphism and the structures being considered, such as topology versus group structure, which may lead to different conclusions.

hermitian
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Hi,

I understand that the open interval (0,1) is isomorphic to the real line [tex]\mathbb{R}^1[/tex]

May i know whether there is also isomorphism from [tex]\mathbb{R}^2[/tex] to [tex]\mathbb{R}^1[/tex]

thanks a lot!
 
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What do you mean by an isomorphism in this case?
 
hmm... the usual sense of isomorphism... where there is a structure preserving bijective map from R^2 to R^1. sorry is my question still vague?
 
The question is which structure are you interested in! It's structure as a set? As an additive group? As a topological space?

I imagine it's the topology you care about. In that case, the answer is "no". The common proof (AFAIK) is to consider the image of a subset of R2 in the shape of the letter Y -- if such an isomorphism existed, it must be injective on the Y. Can you derive a contradiction from that?
 
There is a Borel isomorphism between [itex]\mathbb{R}^2[/itex] and [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex].

There is a group somorphism between [itex]\mathbb{R}^2[/itex] and [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex] (both with addition).

BUT: There is no map between [itex]\mathbb{R}^2[/itex] and [itex]\mathbb{R}[/itex] that is both a Borel isomorphism and a group isomorphism.
 

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