Laplace and ROC of function(- [e^(-at)]u(-t))

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Homework Statement


If laplace of [e^-(at)] u(t) is 1/(s+a) and ROC is s > -a
Find laplace and ROC of -e^(-at) u(-t)

Homework Equations


Laplace is integral over minus infinity to plus infinity of f(t) e^(-st) dt

The Attempt at a Solution


Well i integrated f(t) over the limits with e(-st)u(-t) dt
the u(-t) changes limits to from (-inf to +inf) to (-inf to zero.)
So i integrated it and got Laplace as 1/(s+a)
Now ROC is region for which laplace goes positive that is more than zero
So in case of (1/(s+a)) s+a must be > 0 for F(s) to be positive.
For that s > (-a)

The book says that laplace is right but ROC is s < (-a)
Book didnt integrate. It went through other formula.
like L(f(t)) is F(s)
then laplace of f(-t) is F(-s)
so Laplace of e^(at)u(-t) becomes 1/(-s + a) ROC is -s + a > 0 so -s > -a
Now a becomes -a
so Laplace of e ^ (-at) u(-t) becomes 1/(-s -a) = -1 /(s + a) ROC is s + a > 0 so s > -a
Multiply both side f(t) and F(s) by -1
Laplace of -1 * e ^ (at) u(-t) becomes 1 / (s + a) Here it said that ROC remains same as power remains same. And ROC is -s > a
But shouldn't ROC for (1/(s+a) ) be s + a > 0, so s > -a
I'm confused as to why is ROC different. What does underlined part mean?
 
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Hi jaus tail! :oldsmile:

Simply calculating the Laplacian gives us:
$$\mathcal L[-e^{-at} u(-t)] = \int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-st}\cdot-e^{-at} u(-t)dt
= \int_{+\infty}^{-\infty} e^{s\tau}\cdot e^{a\tau} u(\tau)d\tau
=\int_{+\infty}^{0} e^{(s+a)\tau}d\tau
=\frac{1}{s+a}e^{(s+a)\tau} \Big|_{+\infty}^0
=\frac{1}{s+a}
$$
with ROC ##(s+a)<0\Rightarrow s<-a##.
 
Thanks for the reply.
But isn't ROC values for which denominator of laplace is positive. Like in the below exam from screen show of book.
upload_2016-11-16_21-17-43.png
Here ROC is s > -a, means s + a is more than 0. Laplace of function is 1 / (s + a), so it means denominator of laplace must be positive for ROC, right?

But then same book as other example as:
upload_2016-11-16_21-20-45.png

Why is -a to right of Y axis? here ROC is s < -a, means s + a < 0, whereas above it was s + a > 0.
 

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jaus tail said:
Thanks for the reply.
But isn't ROC values for which denominator of laplace is positive. Like in the below exam from screen show of book.

Not quite.
ROC is the Region Of Convergence.
That's where the Laplacian converges.
In our case it converges iff:
$$\lim_{\tau\to+\infty} e^{(s+a)\tau} < \infty$$
And that's only if ##(s+a)<0##.
All other rules about ROC derive from that and in case of doubt we have to go back to when the integral converges exactly.

In both your examples we have ##e^{-(s+a)t}## inside the integral.
After integration that will turn out unchanged due to the nature of the exponential function.
In the first example the corresponding infinite boundary is ##+\infty## meaning that we require that ##(s+a) > 0## to ensure the integral converges.
And in the second example the infinite boundary is ##-\infty## meaning that we require that ##(s+a) < 0##.
 
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Oh...so by converges it means the value must never go infinite. Like an energy signal? The value must always be bounded. Right?

Another doubt: In second ROC picture why have they put -a, in right side of Y axis? Shouldn't -a be on left side?
 
jaus tail said:
Oh...so by converges it means the value must never go infinite. Like an energy signal? The value must always be bounded. Right?

Another doubt: In second ROC picture why have they put -a, in right side of Y axis? Shouldn't -a be on left side?
Right!
##a## could be either positive or negative - we don't know. So it's an arbitrary choice to put ##-a## left or right of the y-axis
 
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Thanks for the help.
 
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