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I just want to be sure I understand this correctly, usually L[f(t)] = 1/(s-a), where [tex]f(t) = e^{at}[/tex], but if it is a complex number would still be 1/(s - complex_number)?
techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.
thanks much.
techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.
thanks much.