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techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.

thanks much.

- Thread starter EvLer
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- #1

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techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.

thanks much.

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Tide

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Definitely! You can demonstrate it by direct integration.

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lurflurf

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Yes and it is a nice way to find the laplace transforms of sin and cos.EvLer said:

techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.

thanks much.

L[cos(a x)+i sin(a x)]=L[exp(i x)]=1/(s-a i)=(s+a i)/(s^2+a^2)

hence (equating real and imaginary parts)

L[cos(a x)]=s/(s^2+a^2)

L[sin(a x)]=a/(s^2+a^2)

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