- #1

EvLer

- 458

- 0

techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.

thanks much.

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- Thread starter EvLer
- Start date

- #1

EvLer

- 458

- 0

techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.

thanks much.

- #2

Tide

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

- 3,089

- 0

Definitely! You can demonstrate it by direct integration.

- #3

lurflurf

Homework Helper

- 2,459

- 157

Yes and it is a nice way to find the laplace transforms of sin and cos.EvLer said:

techinically, i think it should be, since every number can be reprsented as complex number. Just want to be sure about this with Laplace transform.

thanks much.

L[cos(a x)+i sin(a x)]=L[exp(i x)]=1/(s-a i)=(s+a i)/(s^2+a^2)

hence (equating real and imaginary parts)

L[cos(a x)]=s/(s^2+a^2)

L[sin(a x)]=a/(s^2+a^2)

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