tunaaa
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Hello, I was just wondering if is it true that the limit of a monotonic transformation of a function is the same as the monotonic transformation of its limit? That is, does
\lim_{n \rightarrow a} f(g(x)) = f(\lim_{n \rightarrow a} g(x))
for monotonic f, some a, and such that if the limit does not exist for one side of the expression, it doesn't exist for both?
Thanks.
\lim_{n \rightarrow a} f(g(x)) = f(\lim_{n \rightarrow a} g(x))
for monotonic f, some a, and such that if the limit does not exist for one side of the expression, it doesn't exist for both?
Thanks.