Anonym said:
I ask a simple question:you use to talk about the postulates of QM. If QM is part of physics, then they should be also the postulates of physics, otherwise QM is outside of physics. If QM is physical theory, then how your potulates are applied to A.Einstein GR for example?
I don't know if you noticed it, but we have, as of today, only an incomplete description of physics. So we don't HAVE the postulates of all of physics. We don't even know if they exist, but let us assume they do for a moment. That means that we assume that there exists (in a Platonic sense) a set of axioms, postulates if you wish, which are the ultimate and fundamental laws of nature. One thing is sure: we don't have that complete set yet. We might even have none of it (probably). So that already invalidates your objection, because we are NOT talking about this hypothetical set, we are well aware that we don't have that set (and it might even be that it doesn't exist, and even if we have it, we will never be able to find out). So, "the postulates of physics" (if understood in that sense), is a thing of which we know at least one thing: that is that we don't have it. (and I claim that any fool who thinks he has them is deluding himself) Hence I'm surely not talking about that.
However, we have theoretical descriptions of *parts* of physics, and they are based upon some set of postulates. The union of them, however, doesn't make any sense (which is how we know that we don't have the "ultimate set"). Certain subsets of postulates apply, and set up theories which can explain certain aspects of physics. However, it might very well be that CERTAIN postulates we have today, ARE part of that "ultimate set of physics". Only, we don't know which ones, if any.
So, how far can we go, today ? We seem to have 3 kinds of postulates:
1) "special" relativity (spacetime manifold as geometrical structure)
2) quantum theory (the superposition principle + unitarity)
3) gravity (The Einstein equation)
I put "special" relativity between quotes, because I don't mean the usual kind of SR, with Minkowski space, but an extension of it, which is a pseudo Riemannian manifold, but who is GIVEN.
It seems that we can combine 1 and 2, with some extra assumptions and we get out QFT (which does have mathematical problems, but this is probably more related to the "point particle" idea than to a more fundamental issue ; proof is that elementary versions of string theory get around it). However, we have difficulties including 3).
It also seems that we can combine 1 and 3, and out comes GR. That is, making the pseudo-riemanian manifold DYNAMICAL. However, we then get serious problems with 2. We don't know how to handle "superpositions of geometries and their unitary evolution" (yet?).
Now, all of our observational data are related to situations where OR 3 doesn't play a DYNAMICAL role, or 2 doesn't play a dynamical role.
Mind you, in 1+2 we CAN have "gravity" but only in a kinematical way: that is, we can work in a curved (but non-dynamical) spacetime (1), and we can even do quantum mechanics in such a case (like neutron interferrometry, or the work of my colleague about bound states of neutrons in a gravitational potential). Most of the time we don't even need that, and can work in flat minkowski space to do 2. All of elementary particle, solid state etc... physics happens in this case.
Each time we are looking at *dynamical* effects of gravity, we don't need to consider 2. It is extremely difficult to consider situations in which we both need essentially 2 and 3 together.
A.Einstein GR unambiguously mean firmly established and experimentally confirmed classical theory of gravitation.
ONLY in those cases where it is clear that the superposition principle wouldn't have any influence !
It has NOT been tested in cases where the superposition principle might matter. I'm thinking of attempts, such as the proposed Felix experiment by Penrose, where one tries to establish the gravitational influence of a superposition of localized masses.
If your answer “so all this MWI business only applies to a world in which there is no gravity of course” (classical gravitation included) then you are talking about business that have nothing to do with physics. If your “postulates” do not apply to classical GR there are two options: 1) classical GR is not a physics (wrong); 2) your “postulates” are not a physical postulates.
For sure classical GR is "wrong" as it doesn't incorporate anything like the superposition principle, which has a far better empirical history than GR itself. So in any case *something* will have to be changed to it, even to describe the helium atom. Classical GR, with just tensor fields defined over it, cannot give rise to all predictions of quantum theory (of which many, many have been tested empirically), and in casu Bell's theorem (unless you adhere to superdeterminism or you still think that there are serious empirical loopholes). I start from the idea that the quantum-mechanical predictions are correct, unless they are explicitly demonstrated to be erroneous. As I said, I'm quite conservative.
The collapse is the universally valid phenomenon when the transition to the Classical World take place. The projection operators, connected with the knowledge, process of the acquisition of knowledge and the communication of knowledge included.
You understand that this is a "deus ex machina" which poses a problem if there is no clear definition of what exactly IS the "classical world" (in other words, how do we define what is a system to which a quantum description doesn't apply ?), and this transition ALSO introduces the problem of breaking of Lorentz-invariance in the quantum-mechanical description.
It is exactly THESE potential difficulties which are tackled with MWI: that the full quantum-mechanical treatment gives rise, each time we could consider a "transition to a classical world", to the emergence of a state which can be put in a 1-1 relationship with AN ENSEMBLE of classical, non-interacting worlds. As such, this "transition" simply emerges from the underlying unitary dynamics, instead of having to be introduced "by hand". We have then a precise physical description of what exactly happens "during the transition", and moreover, we can respect the Lorentz invariance.
But of course, this view doesn't solve the FORMAL problems of uniting 1,2 and 3. Only, at least it:
1) allows for a coherent view between 1 and 2
2) doesn't need a dichotomy in nature, about an ill-defined separation between "classical world" and "quantum world", when sometimes the "quantum world" applies to systems with 10^20 degrees of freedom (superconduction), and sometimes it applies to systems which extend over several kilometers (optical Bell tests).