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If you Lorentz transform a scalar:
U^{-1}(\Lambda)\phi(x)U(\Lambda)=\phi(\Lambda^{-1}x)
If you now perform another Lorentz transform, would it it look like this:
U^{-1}(\Lambda')U^{-1}(\Lambda)\phi(x)U(\Lambda)U(\Lambda')=\phi(\Lambda'^{-1}\Lambda^{-1}x) ?
But isn't this wrong, because this expression is equal to:
U^{-1}(\Lambda\Lambda')\phi(x)U(\Lambda\Lambda')=\phi([\Lambda\Lambda']^{-1}x)
and not:
U^{-1}(\Lambda'\Lambda)\phi(x)U(\Lambda'\Lambda)=\phi([\Lambda'\Lambda]^{-1}x)
U^{-1}(\Lambda)\phi(x)U(\Lambda)=\phi(\Lambda^{-1}x)
If you now perform another Lorentz transform, would it it look like this:
U^{-1}(\Lambda')U^{-1}(\Lambda)\phi(x)U(\Lambda)U(\Lambda')=\phi(\Lambda'^{-1}\Lambda^{-1}x) ?
But isn't this wrong, because this expression is equal to:
U^{-1}(\Lambda\Lambda')\phi(x)U(\Lambda\Lambda')=\phi([\Lambda\Lambda']^{-1}x)
and not:
U^{-1}(\Lambda'\Lambda)\phi(x)U(\Lambda'\Lambda)=\phi([\Lambda'\Lambda]^{-1}x)