happyg1
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Hi, I'm working on the following problem and I need some clarification:
Suppose that a sample is drawn from a N(\mu,\sigma^2) distribution. Recall that \frac{(n-1)S^2}{\sigma^2} has a \chi^2 distribution. Use theorem 3.3.1 to determine an unbiased estimator of \sigma
Thoerem 3.3.1 states:
Let X have a \chi^2(r) distribution. If k>-\frac{r}{2} then E(X^k) exists and is given by:
E(X^k)=\frac{2^k(\Gamma(\frac{r}{2}+k))}{\Gamma(\frac{r}{2})}
My understanding is this:
The unbiased estimator equals exactly what it's estimating, so E(\frac{(n-1)S^2}{\sigma^2})is supposed to be\sigma^2 which is 2(n-1).
Am I going the right way here?
CC
Suppose that a sample is drawn from a N(\mu,\sigma^2) distribution. Recall that \frac{(n-1)S^2}{\sigma^2} has a \chi^2 distribution. Use theorem 3.3.1 to determine an unbiased estimator of \sigma
Thoerem 3.3.1 states:
Let X have a \chi^2(r) distribution. If k>-\frac{r}{2} then E(X^k) exists and is given by:
E(X^k)=\frac{2^k(\Gamma(\frac{r}{2}+k))}{\Gamma(\frac{r}{2})}
My understanding is this:
The unbiased estimator equals exactly what it's estimating, so E(\frac{(n-1)S^2}{\sigma^2})is supposed to be\sigma^2 which is 2(n-1).
Am I going the right way here?
CC
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