Magnetic field of a rectangular coil

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the formula for the magnetic field of a square coil, B = m0*2*sqrt(2)*I*N/(a*pi), where m0 represents permeability and a is the side length. The user struggles to understand the derivation, particularly the factor of 2, and notes that the formula is intended for the center of the square coil. They explore the relationship between the square coil and the magnetic field of a single wire segment, but find that their attempts lead to confusion regarding the integration process required for accurate calculations. Ultimately, it is suggested that a solid understanding of integrals is necessary before tackling the complexities of square loops. Understanding the derivation and integration methods is crucial for mastering this topic.
magnetized
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
I got this formula for the magnetic field of a square-shaped coil: B = m0*2*sqrt(2)*I*N/(a*pi), where m0 is the permeability, and a is the side of the square... I can't really get why it is so, and my best tries resulted in approximation of the 'diameter' of the coil, for example by taking the diagonal of the square... thanks in advance!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
That formula is for the field at the center of the square, although I don't get the factor of 2. It is derived by using the Biot-Savart law for a wire segment of length a four times.
The field of a wire segment of length a is found by integrating from -a/2 to +a/2, instead of infinity in the usual derivation for an infinite wire.
 
hm, is there a way to avoid integrals? i found some similarities with the formula for a single wire segment, B = m0*I/(2*r*pi), as a single loop is just 4 of these put in shape of a square, and the orientation of the vector for every segment is the same if we look at the magnetic field in the center, but this turns out to be just four times the formula given above, and r = a/2, so i get B = 4*m0*I/(r*pi)

//edit
ok, i read the 'instead of infinity' now... i guess no hope for getting it right, i guess, as we haven't done integrals yet in school
 
Last edited:
You'd better hold off on square loops until integration.
 
Susskind (in The Theoretical Minimum, volume 1, pages 203-205) writes the Lagrangian for the magnetic field as ##L=\frac m 2(\dot x^2+\dot y^2 + \dot z^2)+ \frac e c (\dot x A_x +\dot y A_y +\dot z A_z)## and then calculates ##\dot p_x =ma_x + \frac e c \frac d {dt} A_x=ma_x + \frac e c(\frac {\partial A_x} {\partial x}\dot x + \frac {\partial A_x} {\partial y}\dot y + \frac {\partial A_x} {\partial z}\dot z)##. I have problems with the last step. I might have written ##\frac {dA_x} {dt}...
Thread 'Griffith, Electrodynamics, 4th Edition, Example 4.8. (Second part)'
I am reading the Griffith, Electrodynamics book, 4th edition, Example 4.8. I want to understand some issues more correctly. It's a little bit difficult to understand now. > Example 4.8. Suppose the entire region below the plane ##z=0## in Fig. 4.28 is filled with uniform linear dielectric material of susceptibility ##\chi_e##. Calculate the force on a point charge ##q## situated a distance ##d## above the origin. In the page 196, in the first paragraph, the author argues as follows ...
Back
Top