A Magnetic response of a degenerate Fermi gas

ChinoSupay
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I know that in a Fermi gas, the two common responses to a lo field are Pauli par. and Landau dia. and the last becomes the H-VA effect

My question is, it is the same treatment in degenerated Fermi Gas?
 
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One speaks of a “degenerate” Fermi gas in case its temperature T is much lower than its Fermi temperature TF: T << TF = εF/kB where kB is the Boltzmann constant and εF the Fermi energy at T = 0. What is termed “Pauli paramagnetism” for the behavior of conduction electrons in metals when subjected to a magnetic field is derived on base of the assumption that there is a degenerate Fermi gas.
 
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And what happens with landau diamagnetism? Because it comes by the movement of delocalized electrons
 
Charged particles couple to a magnetic field via their charge, leading to a diamagnetic contribution to the magnetic susceptibility. At low temperatures (degenerate case), this effect in a free electron gas is known as Landau diamagnetism.
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...

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