orajput
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Given the formula of Mahalanobis Distance:
D^2_M = (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})^T \mathbf{S}^{-1} (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})
If I simplify the above expression using Eigen-value decomposition (EVD) of the Covariance Matrix:
S = \mathbf{P} \Lambda \mathbf{P}^T
Then,
D^2_M = (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})^T \mathbf{P} \Lambda^{-1} \mathbf{P}^T (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})
Let, the projections of (\mathbf{x}-\mu) on all eigen-vectors present in \mathbf{P} be \mathbf{b}, then:
\mathbf{b} = \mathbf{P}^T(\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})
And,
D^2_M = \mathbf{b}^T \Lambda^{-1} \mathbf{b}
D^2_M = \sum_i{\frac{b^2_i}{\lambda_i}}
The problem that I am facing right now is as follows:
The covariance matrix \mathbf{S} is calculated on a dataset, in which no. of observations are less than the no. of variables. This causes some zero-valued eigen-values after EVD of \mathbf{S}.
In these cases the above simplified expression does not result in the same Mahalanobis Distance as the original expression, i.e.:
(\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})^T \mathbf{S}^{-1} (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu}) \neq \sum_i{\frac{b^2_i}{\lambda_i}} (for non-zero \lambda_i)
My question is: Is the simplified expression still functionally represents the Mahalanobis Distance?
P.S.: Motivation to use the simplified expression of Mahalanbis Distance is to calculate its gradient wrt b.
D^2_M = (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})^T \mathbf{S}^{-1} (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})
If I simplify the above expression using Eigen-value decomposition (EVD) of the Covariance Matrix:
S = \mathbf{P} \Lambda \mathbf{P}^T
Then,
D^2_M = (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})^T \mathbf{P} \Lambda^{-1} \mathbf{P}^T (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})
Let, the projections of (\mathbf{x}-\mu) on all eigen-vectors present in \mathbf{P} be \mathbf{b}, then:
\mathbf{b} = \mathbf{P}^T(\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})
And,
D^2_M = \mathbf{b}^T \Lambda^{-1} \mathbf{b}
D^2_M = \sum_i{\frac{b^2_i}{\lambda_i}}
The problem that I am facing right now is as follows:
The covariance matrix \mathbf{S} is calculated on a dataset, in which no. of observations are less than the no. of variables. This causes some zero-valued eigen-values after EVD of \mathbf{S}.
In these cases the above simplified expression does not result in the same Mahalanobis Distance as the original expression, i.e.:
(\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu})^T \mathbf{S}^{-1} (\mathbf{x} - \mathbf{\mu}) \neq \sum_i{\frac{b^2_i}{\lambda_i}} (for non-zero \lambda_i)
My question is: Is the simplified expression still functionally represents the Mahalanobis Distance?
P.S.: Motivation to use the simplified expression of Mahalanbis Distance is to calculate its gradient wrt b.