fresh_42 said:
Physicists probably write them ##e_i = (δ_{ij})_j##. I learned unit vectors. Ok, it's not the i-th basis vector but the coordinate representation of the i-th basis vector. But that is hair-splitting.
Really? Take ##P_2##, the vector space of, say, real polynomials of order ##\le 2##, including the zero polynomial. There are no unit vectors here. (We cannot even normalize to unity because there is no norm chosen yet.) Let's pick a basis, perhaps ##\mathcal{A} := \{1, x, x^2\}## and consider ##p \in P_2## defined by ##p(x) = 6 - x^2##. Then its coordinate vector is ##[p]_{\mathcal{A}} = [6, 0, -1] \in \mathbb{R}^3##. However, with respect to the basis ##\mathcal{B} = \{2 - x, x, -x^2\}## we have ##[p]_{\mathcal{B}} = [3, 3, 1]_{\mathcal{B}} \in \mathbb{R}^3##. Also, the representation of the first basis vector in ##\mathcal{A}## with respect to ##\mathcal{B}## is ##[1]_{\mathcal{B}} = [\tfrac{1}{2},\tfrac{1}{2},0] \in \mathbb{R}^3##, etc.
Especially when learning LA, it is very important that students, in mathematics and physics alike, distinguish between ##p##, ##[p]_{\mathcal{A}}## and ##p_{\mathcal{B}}##. (Later on, they may learn that these vectors are related through isomorphisms, but that is not how one starts.) It is also crucial when doing computations, for example in numerical analysis.
fresh_42 said:
To awake the impression that a matrix isn't a linear transformation is negligent.
Nobody awoke this impression, but as we have just seen, one has to be precise, especially when dealing with vector spaces different from ##\mathbb{R}^n## or ##\mathbb{C}^n##.
fresh_42 said:
There is always a basis to which the matrix is a linear transformation. And in the finite dimensional case even without the use of the axiom of choice.
In combination with your earlier comments on unit vectors, you seem to suggest that for infinite dimensional vector spaces every matrix defines a linear transformation on the space. This is already false for separable Hilbert spaces. Take the sequence space ##\ell_2## with the canonical basis (yes indeed, the one consisting of the unit vectors ##\{(\delta_{mn})_{m = 1}^{\infty} \,:\,n \in \mathbb{N}\}##) and consider the infinite matrix ##M = (\delta_{mn}n)_{m,n=1}^{\infty}##. Then ##x = [n^{-1}]_{n=1}^{\infty}## is in ##\ell_2## but ##Mx = [1]_{n=1}^{\infty}## is not.
In fact, by Parseval's identity there is no orthonormal basis of ##\ell_2## with respect to which ##M## represents a linear operator.
fresh_42 said:
The discussion distinguishing between the vectors themselves and their coordinate representation is in my opinion something for specialists and logicians.
No, it is not, as we have already seen in the example on ##P_2##. It is part of any decent first course on linear algebra. On the other hand, if by "specialists" are meant people that actually know what they are talking about, then I agree.
Yes, I'm quite irritated. Your post lacks any, well... insight, and is one of those that sometimes makes me wonder whether I'm wasting my time here.