Measure Theory-LebesgueMeasurable

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Homework Statement



Is there any non-Lebesgue-Measurable set A in R such as A contains all rational numbers?

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The Attempt at a Solution


I've tried assuming that this is true... If such a set exists, then both A and A^c aren't countable... I've tried looking at A^c ... It's a non-countable set containing only non-rational numbers...I can't find any contradiction from this fact...
[I'm pretty sure the answer to the given question is no...]

Hope you'll be able to help me

Thanks !
 
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Don't try to construct a nonmeasurable set in such a way that it contains all of \mathbb{Q}. Instead, approach the problem in two parts: first get yourself a nonmeasurable set, then try to figure out whether you can make it contain \mathbb{Q} and still be nonmeasurable.
 
Well...After reading your guidance , I've tried taking the "Vitali Set" (The subset of
[-0.5,0.5] which, for each real number r, contains exactly one number v such that v-r is rational )... If we'll denote this set as P, then we need to consider P \cup Q.
P is nonmeasurable and contains excatly one rational numbers...I can't figure out whether our "union set" is measurable or not... We've added to P a set of measure 0...Does the new set is measurable or not?

Hope you'll be able to continue your guidance...

Thanks !
 
You have reduced the problem to exactly the question you need to answer. Let A \subset \mathbb{R} be any set, and Z \subset \mathbb{R} be a set of measure zero. How is the measurability or nonmeasurability of A \cup Z related to that of A? (What test for measurability should you be using to answer this question?)
 
Well... Z is obviously measurable...If A is also measurable then A \cup Z is also measurable... Hence, if A \cup Z is nonmeasurable , A must be nonmeasurable... So, if we take a nonmeasurable set A, containing all rational numbers, A-Q must also be nonmeasurable...But A-Q is a set contained in the irrational numbers set... Is it a contradiction?
As you can see, I'm pretty much stuck... Hope you'll be able to give me some further guidance

Thanks !
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...
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