billschnieder
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I understand that it is an inference, but certainly not "demonstrated" by experiment as suggested in your previous post. I was just pointing out to you that if particles were interfering with themselves as you say, we would have interference everywhere without any need for slits but we don't. Even the popular idea that photons interfere with each other is not correct. Photons are bosons they can interact with fermions but not other bosons. The slits have lots of fermions. This is not my idea, this is standard physics.craigi said:The reason that we say that the particle interferes with itself pertains to the wave properties of particles.
No question about that. Epicycles also explained the motion of the planets pretty well.A classical wave interferes with itself in the same way. The mathematical description of the self-interference is as we'd expect, from the geometry in both cases.
The originators of epicycles couldn't envisage anything better either. Every generation does the best it can. I'm just prodding your imagination to think carefully about some of the assumptions you have taken for granted which may be the source of some misunderstandings evidenced in your original question.Like I said, this is not my idea. But I'll give you not just one but several mathematical descriptions which do not use waves but are based on quantized momentum transfer from discrete particles.I can't envisage a mathematical formulation that could reproduce the results of the experiment so neatly. Do you have a mathematical description to support your idea? Are there others that do?
- The Transfer in Quanta of Radiation Momentum to Matter -- Duane, PNAS 1923 9 (5) 158-164
- The Quantum Theory of the Fraunhofer Diffraction, P. S. Epstein and, P. Ehrenfest,PNAS 1924 10 (4) 133-139
- The Quantum Integral and Diffraction by a Crystal, Arthur H. Compton, PNAS 1923 9 (11) 359-362
- The Interference of Light and the Quantum Theory, G. Breit, PNAS 1923 9 (7) 238-243
No question that the wave propagation description provides a workable "mathematical" solution to the puzzle. But as demonstrated by Duane and Compton many years ago, it is not the only one.Whatever it does, it would need to feel out the geometry of the entire arrangement and we'd end up with is something that is mathematically equivelant to doing this via wave propogation anyway.
And my answer was that once you start talking of coherence in such a system, you can not later separate it and talk of coherence only in one part without reference to the other as implied in your question. It is not a question of classical vs quantum. It is a question of consistency vs inconsistency and being clear of what we are talking about.I have no problem in considering the particle and a distant macroscopic entity as a single system. It is the decoherence in exactly such a system, that the question was about.