Modulo Arithmetic: Is a^{\varphi(n)}\equiv 1 (mod \;n) for gcd(a,n)=1?

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Is it true that if A \equiv B \mod{\varphi(N)} where \varphi (N) is Euler's totient function then a^A \equiv a^B \mod{N}?

I'm not after a proof or anything but I didn't do a number theory course and it seems that this fact is used in many questions I'm currently doing.
 
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You need to assume gcd(a,N)=1 as well.
 
The more popular format is

a^{\varphi(n)}\equiv 1 (mod \;n) where gcd(a,n)=1
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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