Ted123
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Is it true that if A \equiv B \mod{\varphi(N)} where \varphi (N) is Euler's totient function then a^A \equiv a^B \mod{N}?
I'm not after a proof or anything but I didn't do a number theory course and it seems that this fact is used in many questions I'm currently doing.
I'm not after a proof or anything but I didn't do a number theory course and it seems that this fact is used in many questions I'm currently doing.