pellman
- 683
- 6
For a single variable we have
\int_{x_1}^{x_2} f(x) dx = F(x_2)-F(x_1)
if f(x) = dF/dx. f(x) is then a total derivative. What is the analog in 3D so that
\int_V f(\vec{x}) d^3x
does not depend on the values of f in the interior of V?
In case there is not a single answer, let me give the context. In the calculus of variations two Lagrangians are equivalent if
L_2(q(t),\dot{q}(t),t)=\lambda L_1(q(t),\dot{q}(t),t) + \frac{d}{dt}F(q(t),\dot{q}(t),t)
where lambda is a constant and F is any function. (That is, their actions are extremized for the same function q(t).) What replaces dF/dt in this equivalency if we have a multi-parameter action
S=\int L(q(\vec{x}),\partial q(\vec{x}),\vec{x}) d^3x
(where \partial q stands for the various partial derivatives of q)?
Is it \nabla \cdot \vec{F} for some vector function F? Or is there more to it than that?
\int_{x_1}^{x_2} f(x) dx = F(x_2)-F(x_1)
if f(x) = dF/dx. f(x) is then a total derivative. What is the analog in 3D so that
\int_V f(\vec{x}) d^3x
does not depend on the values of f in the interior of V?
In case there is not a single answer, let me give the context. In the calculus of variations two Lagrangians are equivalent if
L_2(q(t),\dot{q}(t),t)=\lambda L_1(q(t),\dot{q}(t),t) + \frac{d}{dt}F(q(t),\dot{q}(t),t)
where lambda is a constant and F is any function. (That is, their actions are extremized for the same function q(t).) What replaces dF/dt in this equivalency if we have a multi-parameter action
S=\int L(q(\vec{x}),\partial q(\vec{x}),\vec{x}) d^3x
(where \partial q stands for the various partial derivatives of q)?
Is it \nabla \cdot \vec{F} for some vector function F? Or is there more to it than that?
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