- #1
member 529879
I was looking at the Wikipedia page for Newton’s laws and read that they applied only to point particles. If we want to use F = ma on a larger object, if I read correctly, we must instead use Euler’s laws.
I have a few questions about this.
If this is correct why are we taught to use Newton’s laws to find the motion of rigid bodies? Wouldn’t we actually be using Euler’s laws?
How exactly did Newton come to the conclusion that point masses were subject to his laws? It’s not like he could just test them with point particles. I would have thought that that Euler’s f = ma(cm) would have been the more useful and simpler to verify law.
I have a few questions about this.
If this is correct why are we taught to use Newton’s laws to find the motion of rigid bodies? Wouldn’t we actually be using Euler’s laws?
How exactly did Newton come to the conclusion that point masses were subject to his laws? It’s not like he could just test them with point particles. I would have thought that that Euler’s f = ma(cm) would have been the more useful and simpler to verify law.