Steve Drake
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Hello,
I am confused by the momentum version of Newtons second law...
So we know
\bar{F}=m\bar{a}=m\left(\frac{d\hat{v}}{dt}\right)
and that
\bar{\rho}=m\bar{v}=m\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)
so is
\frac{d\bar{p}}{dt}=m\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}
What I mean is this bit \frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt} somehow equal to \bar{a}
Thanks
I am confused by the momentum version of Newtons second law...
So we know
\bar{F}=m\bar{a}=m\left(\frac{d\hat{v}}{dt}\right)
and that
\bar{\rho}=m\bar{v}=m\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)
so is
\frac{d\bar{p}}{dt}=m\frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt}
What I mean is this bit \frac{d\left(\frac{d\bar{x}}{dt}\right)}{dt} somehow equal to \bar{a}
Thanks