- #1
Sekonda
- 207
- 0
Hey
My question is displayed below
I think I have done this right but I wanted to check, we have to normalise the wavefunction first and I think this is done by assuming each state is equally likely and so assigning some constant 'c' to premultiply each of the 3 states.
We need multiply each state by it's Bra form such that we get 3c^{2}=1 and so c=1/√3
and provided this is correct then the probability of attaining an eigenvalue ω=1 is just
√(2/3)
Is this correct? If not what am I doing/assuming which is wrong?
Thanks,
SK
My question is displayed below
I think I have done this right but I wanted to check, we have to normalise the wavefunction first and I think this is done by assuming each state is equally likely and so assigning some constant 'c' to premultiply each of the 3 states.
We need multiply each state by it's Bra form such that we get 3c^{2}=1 and so c=1/√3
and provided this is correct then the probability of attaining an eigenvalue ω=1 is just
√(2/3)
Is this correct? If not what am I doing/assuming which is wrong?
Thanks,
SK