Normalization of Slit #2 Wave Amplitude

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion focuses on the normalization of wave amplitudes in a double-slit experiment involving electrons. The wave functions for slits #1 and #2 are given as \(\psi(y,t) = A \exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i(ky-\omega t)}\) and \(\psi(y,t) = A \exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i(k+\pi)y-\omega t)}\), respectively. The normalization condition is established as \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi*\psi dy = 1\). The first normalization solution yields \(1/A = \sqrt{\pi/2}\), and the discussion confirms the need to include the square of amplitude \(A\) in the calculations.

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Homework Statement



In a double-slit experiment, the slits are on the y-axis and the electrons are detected
on a vertical screen. When only slit #1 is open, the amplitude of the wave which
gets through is
\psi(y,t) = A \exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i((ky-\omega t)}

when only slit #2 is open, the amplitude of the wave which gets through is
\psi(y,t) = A \exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i(k+\pi)y-\omega t)}

(a) Normalize 1 and 2.


Homework Equations



Normalization Condition
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi*\psi dy = 1

The Attempt at a Solution




1.
1=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} A (\exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i((ky-\omega t)}) (\exp^{-y^2} \exp^{i((ky-\omega t)}) dy <br />
1=A \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp^{-2y^2} dy<br />
<br /> 1/A= \sqrt{\pi/2}<br /> From integral tables

That's the solution i came up with for the first normalisation
Is the second the same?
 
Last edited:
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Tyst said:

Homework Statement



In a double-slit experiment, the slits are on the y-axis and the electrons are detected
on a vertical screen. When only slit #1 is open, the amplitude of the wave which
gets through is
\psi(y,t) = A \exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i((ky-\omega t)}

when only slit #2 is open, the amplitude of the wave which gets through is
\psi(y,t) = A \exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i(k+\pi)y-\omega t)}

(a) Normalize 1 and 2.


Homework Equations



Normalization Condition
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi*\psi dy = 1

The Attempt at a Solution




1.
1=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} A (\exp^{-y^2} \exp^{-i((ky-\omega t)}) (\exp^{-y^2} \exp^{i((ky-\omega t)}) dy <br />
1=A \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \exp^{-2y^2} dy<br />
<br /> 1/A= \sqrt{\pi/2}<br /> From integral tables

That's the solution i came up with for the first normalisation
Is the second the same?

i think u forgot to put the square over the A

cioa
 
Ha! So i did, thanks.
 

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