- #36
Kindayr
- 161
- 0
Yep, we had to use the fact that [itex]a+p\in\mathbb{Z}_{p^{2}}^{\times}[/itex] is a generator, hence showing that it is cyclic. My original question was the starting point to this proof.
I'm still confused on how exactly we showed that [itex]\gcd(k,p)=1[/itex].
Also, thank you so much for your help otherwise!
I'm still confused on how exactly we showed that [itex]\gcd(k,p)=1[/itex].
Also, thank you so much for your help otherwise!