jfy4
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Hi, I'm going to quote a lot of a book so that I can get some help, brace yourselves...
First, \phi_{a} is my field with a=0,1 as internal components and my lagrangian is
<br /> L=\frac{1}{2}\partial_{\mu}\phi_a \partial^\mu \phi_a +\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2<br />
with U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2
now in Jan Smit's book, "Introduction to Quantum Fields on a Lattice" the page has the following:
Now we go on to expand around \phi_{g}^a, and the results in the book are
and
So then, what is v^2 in the symmetry breaking equations, why use the same letter IF it's different, and not say so?
Thanks,
First, \phi_{a} is my field with a=0,1 as internal components and my lagrangian is
<br /> L=\frac{1}{2}\partial_{\mu}\phi_a \partial^\mu \phi_a +\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2<br />
with U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2
now in Jan Smit's book, "Introduction to Quantum Fields on a Lattice" the page has the following:
My first question: Is that v in the symmetry breaking part the same v we defined above?The potential
<br /> U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2 <br />
has a "wine-bottle" shape, also called the "mexican-hat" shape, if \mu^2 <0. It's clear that for \mu^2 >0 the ground state is unique, but for \mu^2 <0 the ground state is infinitely degenerate. The equation \partial U/\partial \phi^k =0 for the minima, (\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2)=0 has the solution
<br /> \phi_{g}^a =v\delta_{a,0},\quad v^2=-\frac{\mu^2}{\lambda}<br />
or any O(2) rotation of this vector. To force the system into a definite ground state we add a symmetry-breaking term to the action
<br /> \Delta S=\int dx \epsilon \phi^0, \quad \epsilon >0<br />
The constant \epsilon has the dimensions of mass cubed. The equation for the stationary points now reads
<br /> (\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2 )\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
with the symmetry breaking (the above) the ground state has \phi_{g}^a pointing in the a=0 direction,
<br /> \phi_{g}^a=v\delta_{a,0},\quad (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon<br />
Now we go on to expand around \phi_{g}^a, and the results in the book are
with \pi=\phi^1 and \phi^0=v+\sigma<br /> (-\partial^2 +m_{\sigma}^2 )\sigma =0,\quad (-\partial^2 +m_{\pi}^2)\pi=0<br />
and
Now the reason I asked the above question is, substituting the first definition of v^2 into these mass definitions, m_{\pi} equals zero...<br /> m_{\sigma}^2=\mu^2 +3\lambda v^2=2\lambda v^2+\epsilon /v<br />
<br /> m_{\pi}^2=\mu^2+\lambda v^2=\epsilon /v<br />
So then, what is v^2 in the symmetry breaking equations, why use the same letter IF it's different, and not say so?
Thanks,