O(2) symmetry breaking trouble

jfy4
Messages
645
Reaction score
3
Hi, I'm going to quote a lot of a book so that I can get some help, brace yourselves...

First, \phi_{a} is my field with a=0,1 as internal components and my lagrangian is
<br /> L=\frac{1}{2}\partial_{\mu}\phi_a \partial^\mu \phi_a +\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2<br />
with U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2
now in Jan Smit's book, "Introduction to Quantum Fields on a Lattice" the page has the following:
The potential
<br /> U=\frac{1}{2}\mu^2 \phi_a \phi_a +\frac{1}{4}\lambda (\phi_a \phi_a )^2 <br />
has a "wine-bottle" shape, also called the "mexican-hat" shape, if \mu^2 &lt;0. It's clear that for \mu^2 &gt;0 the ground state is unique, but for \mu^2 &lt;0 the ground state is infinitely degenerate. The equation \partial U/\partial \phi^k =0 for the minima, (\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2)=0 has the solution
<br /> \phi_{g}^a =v\delta_{a,0},\quad v^2=-\frac{\mu^2}{\lambda}<br />
or any O(2) rotation of this vector. To force the system into a definite ground state we add a symmetry-breaking term to the action
<br /> \Delta S=\int dx \epsilon \phi^0, \quad \epsilon &gt;0<br />
The constant \epsilon has the dimensions of mass cubed. The equation for the stationary points now reads
<br /> (\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2 )\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
with the symmetry breaking (the above) the ground state has \phi_{g}^a pointing in the a=0 direction,
<br /> \phi_{g}^a=v\delta_{a,0},\quad (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon<br />
My first question: Is that v in the symmetry breaking part the same v we defined above?

Now we go on to expand around \phi_{g}^a, and the results in the book are
<br /> (-\partial^2 +m_{\sigma}^2 )\sigma =0,\quad (-\partial^2 +m_{\pi}^2)\pi=0<br />
with \pi=\phi^1 and \phi^0=v+\sigma
and
<br /> m_{\sigma}^2=\mu^2 +3\lambda v^2=2\lambda v^2+\epsilon /v<br />
<br /> m_{\pi}^2=\mu^2+\lambda v^2=\epsilon /v<br />
Now the reason I asked the above question is, substituting the first definition of v^2 into these mass definitions, m_{\pi} equals zero...

So then, what is v^2 in the symmetry breaking equations, why use the same letter IF it's different, and not say so?

Thanks,
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The vacuum expectation value, v, is defined by \phi^a_g = v \delta_{a0}. Its value is set by the classical potential to be a root of (\mu^2+ \lambda v^2)v=\epsilon. When \epsilon =0, it takes the value v^2 = - \mu^2/\lambda, but not in general. It should be obvious why the same letter is used when viewed in this way.
 
That helps, thanks.
 
geez, I still can't get that second set of quoted equations. Here are my steps. I am starting with the EOM
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda \phi^2)\phi^a=\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
and I am expanding around v as \phi^0 =v+\sigma and \phi^1 =\pi. That gives me
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (\phi^0 \phi^0 + \phi^1 \phi^1))\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (v^2+2\sigma v +\pi^2))\phi^a =\epsilon \delta_{a,0}<br />
<br /> (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (v^2+2\sigma v +\pi^2))(v+\sigma)=\epsilon ,\quad (-\partial^2 +\mu^2 +\lambda (v^2+2\sigma v +\pi^2))\pi=0<br />
The first equation turns to, using (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon
<br /> -\partial^2 (v+\sigma )+\mu^2 \sigma +\lambda \pi^2 v +\lambda \pi^2 \sigma +3\lambda v^2 \sigma =0<br />
and the second
<br /> -\partial^2 \pi +\mu^2 \pi +\lambda v^2 \pi +2\lambda v \sigma \pi =0<br />
Both of these have many of the terms I need, plus a number of them that don't show up in the book. Where am I going wrong?

Thanks,
 
jfy4 said:
The first equation turns to, using (\mu^2+\lambda v^2)v=\epsilon
<br /> -\partial^2 (v+\sigma )+\mu^2 \sigma +\lambda \pi^2 v +\lambda \pi^2 \sigma +3\lambda v^2 \sigma =0<br />
and the second
<br /> -\partial^2 \pi +\mu^2 \pi +\lambda v^2 \pi +2\lambda v \sigma \pi =0<br />
Both of these have many of the terms I need, plus a number of them that don't show up in the book. Where am I going wrong?

Thanks,

The terms which are of higher order in the fields are interaction terms. To find the mass we want the terms in the e.o.m. that are linear , so write those as

<br /> -\partial^2 \sigma+(\mu^2 +3\lambda v^2 )\sigma = - \lambda v \pi^2 -\lambda \pi^2 \sigma <br />
<br /> -\partial^2 \pi + (\mu^2 +\lambda v^2) \pi = - 2\lambda v \sigma \pi .<br />

The terms on the RHS are just \partial V/\partial \sigma and \partial V/\partial \pi, where V(\sigma,\pi) is the part of the scalar potential without the mass terms.
 
Not an expert in QM. AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is quite different from the classical wave equation. The former is an equation for the dynamics of the state of a (quantum?) system, the latter is an equation for the dynamics of a (classical) degree of freedom. As a matter of fact, Schrödinger's equation is first order in time derivatives, while the classical wave equation is second order. But, AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is a wave equation; only its interpretation makes it non-classical...
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
Is it possible, and fruitful, to use certain conceptual and technical tools from effective field theory (coarse-graining/integrating-out, power-counting, matching, RG) to think about the relationship between the fundamental (quantum) and the emergent (classical), both to account for the quasi-autonomy of the classical level and to quantify residual quantum corrections? By “emergent,” I mean the following: after integrating out fast/irrelevant quantum degrees of freedom (high-energy modes...
Back
Top