Okay have learnt alot about torque in general by getting help here, so

  • Thread starter Thread starter aaaa202
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    General Torque
AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on the understanding of torque in relation to force and energy in mechanics. The user expresses confusion about how torque operates in static cases and its relationship with internal forces within an object. They note that while exerting a force on an object leads to internal forces, the effectiveness of these forces at causing rotation varies with distance from the rotational axis. The analogy of a projected image becoming larger with distance is used to illustrate this concept. Ultimately, the geometry of the force application plays a crucial role in the effectiveness of torque.
aaaa202
Messages
1,144
Reaction score
2
Okay have learned a lot about torque in general by getting help here, so I thought I'd just a ask a liiittle more about what wonders me.

Because I can see what motivates the definition of torque mathematically but as said earlier still find it hard to understand in terms of other quantities from mechanics such as force, energy etc. - maybe torque isn't something you understand like force isn't really something you understand...?

Nevertheless I got a good intuition for it using energy considerations but still don't quite get it in the static case.
I've narrowed my search about what I basically don't get to the following:
When you exert a force on an object you would expect it to somehow to transmit between the internal parts of the objects to a series of small forces but alle these small forces can always be traced back to the net force. So the same force will transmit between the small objects of the body in the case where u apply a force in a radius of r and 2r from the rotational axis. If this is true, what is it then that makes the internal forces in the 2nd case more effective at rotation the object?
 
Physics news on Phys.org


geometry.

It's the same thing that makes a projected picture bigger the further away the screen is.
 
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top