Can someone tell me exactly how(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]\langle x |\hat{p} | \psi\rangle[/tex]

becomes

[tex]-i \hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}[/tex]?

Is

[tex]\hat{p} \langle x |\psi\rangle[/tex]

an intermediary step?

Because isn't [tex]\langle x |\psi\rangle = \psi(x)[/tex]?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Operator question

Loading...

Similar Threads - Operator question | Date |
---|---|

B Question about Unitary Operators and symmetry | Feb 9, 2018 |

I Question about commuting operators | Aug 7, 2016 |

Relativistic vs. Nonrelativistic KE Operator question | Feb 18, 2016 |

Converting operator matrix (Quantum Chemistry question) | Feb 17, 2016 |

Momentum Operator Derivation Questions | Sep 3, 2015 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**