Order of image of homomorphism divides order of G

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Homework Statement


Let ##\phi : G \rightarrow G'## be a group homomorphism. Show that if ##| G |## is finite, then ##| \phi [G] |## = ##| I am (\phi)| ## is finite and a divisor of ##| G |##

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The Attempt at a Solution


Assume that G is finite, with order n. Then im(G) is a subgroup of G' and has at most n elements, so must also be finite. Let im(G) have order m.

Next, we know that ##\forall a \in G##, ##a^n = e##. Also, we know that ##\phi : G \rightarrow \phi [ G ]## is a surjection, so ##(\forall a' \in \phi [G]) (\exists a \in G)~ \phi (a) = a' ## Thus, ##a^n = e \Rightarrow \phi (a^n) = \phi (e) \Rightarrow \phi (a) ^n = e \Rightarrow (a') ^n = e##, where a' is any element of the image of ##\phi##. This means that n is a multiple of the order of a'. But m is also a multiple of the order of a'...

This is as far as I get. I can't seem how to conclude that n is a multiple of m from this information
 
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The trick is to consider ##G'/\Phi(G)##. This divides ##G'## into equivalence classes which are equally big.
 
If you could show a bijection from the collection of left cosets of \ker \phi to \phi(G), then Lagrange's Theorem would complete the proof.

fresh_42 said:
The trick is to consider ##G'/\Phi(G)##. This divides ##G'## into equivalence classes which are equally big.

We are not given that G' is finite.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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