Orders of products of group elements.

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I'm looking to show that:
Order (ab(a^-1)) = Order b
So far...
Let x be order of ab(a^-1), so we have:
e = (ab(a^-1)^x)
= (a^x)(b^x)(a^(x-1))
= (a^x)(b^x)((a^-1)^x) so by associativity we have...
= (a^x)((a^-1)^x)(b^x)
= (((a)(a^-1))^x)(b^x)
= (e^x)(b^x)
= b^x
Hence x is the order of b aswell.
Im really not sure of how indices work with group elements, is it the same as with actual numbers? ie does (ab)^x = (a^x)(b^x) in groups? I am not sure it does!
Any help greatly appreciated!
 
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sairalouise said:
Im really not sure of how indices work with group elements, is it the same as with actual numbers? ie does (ab)^x = (a^x)(b^x) in groups? I am not sure it does!
Exercise: Suppose G is a group with the property that, for all a and b, (ab)^2 = a^2 b^2. Show that G is Abelian.
 
Let n be the order of a b (a^-1). Then
(a b a^{-1})^n = (a b a^{-1}) (a b a^{-1}) \cdots (a b a^{-1}) = e

(Hint: use that the group multiplication is associative -- i.e. you can put the brackets differently!)
 
Let o(aba^{-1})=m, o(b)=n So it follows that :(aba^{-1})^m=e, b^n=e

now let's consider the following

[aba^{-1}]^n=aa^{-1}(aba^{-1})*(aba^{-1})*(aba^{-1})*(aba^{-1})...*(aba^{-1})=a(a^{-1}a)*b*(a^{-1}a)*b*(a^{-1}a)*b*(a^{-1}a)*...*b*a^{-1}=


ab^na^{-1}=a*e*a^{-1}=e=> m|n

Now:

b^m=e*b*e*b*e*b*e*...*b*e=(a^{-1}a)*b*(a^{-1}a)*b*(a^{-1}a)*b*...*(a^{-1}a)*b*(a^{-1}a)=

=a^{-1}*(aba^{-1})*(aba^{-1})*(aba^{-1})*(aba^{-1})*...*(aba^{-1})*a=a^{-1}*(aba^{-1})^m*a=a^{-1}*e*a=e=>n|m

Now since n|m and m|n => n=m what we had to prove.

P.S. This was in one of my recent exams in abstract! How would you rank such a problem in an exam in a first undergrad course in abstract algebra?
 
Last edited:
Hurkyl said:
Exercise: Suppose G is a group with the property that, for all a and b, (ab)^2 = a^2 b^2. Show that G is Abelian.

Suppose G is a group with the property that, for all a and b, (ab)^2 = a^2 b^2. Show that G is Abelian.

Let x,y \in G we want to show that xy=yx ?

x(yx)y=(xy)(xy)=(xy)^2=x^2y^2=(xx)(yy)=x(xy)y So:

x(yx)y=x(xy)y /*y^{-1}=> x(yx)yy^{-1}=x(xy)yy^{-1}=>x(yx)=x(xy)

Now multiplying by the inverse of x from the left we get:

x^{-1}*\x(yx)=x(xy)=>x^{-1}x(yx)=x^{-1}x(xy)=>yx=xy

So, since x,y were arbitrary, we conclude that G is abelian.

Nice exercise!
 
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