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Orthonormality property

  1. Sep 23, 2006 #1
    x(t) = sigma (from m = -infinity to infinity) zm e^(j*m*omega*t)

    now my book says that using orthonormality property, we can calculate zm by calculating scalar product of x(t) and em(t) (where em(t) = e^(j*m*omega*t))
    hows that possible??

    please feel free to move the thread if its in wrong section!
     
    Last edited: Sep 23, 2006
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 23, 2006 #2

    Hurkyl

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    Have you tried actually computing the scalar product?
     
  4. Sep 23, 2006 #3
    the book has done that for me ...
    it still makes no sense why zm would equal the scalar product
     
  5. Sep 23, 2006 #4

    Hurkyl

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    Since you probably didn't come here just to say you're surprised, that means you don't understand something about the derivation -- so what didn't you understand?
     
  6. Sep 23, 2006 #5
    You are probably learning how to calculate the Fourier series coefficients. If that's the case see if this helps:
    http://cnx.org/content/m10733/latest/?format=pdf
     
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