Partial Derivatives with Inverse Trig Functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of partial derivatives in the context of the Cauchy-Riemann equations, specifically for functions involving inverse trigonometric functions. The original poster seeks to demonstrate that the functions u(x,y) and v(x,y) satisfy these equations given their definitions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the partial derivatives of the given functions and apply them to the Cauchy-Riemann equations. Some participants question the algebraic manipulation involved in the derivation, particularly regarding the terms in the denominator.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the algebraic steps taken by the original poster. There is an acknowledgment of potential errors in the expressions, and some guidance is offered regarding the manipulation of terms, but no consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the complexities of partial derivatives and the specific forms of the functions involved. There is a noted concern about the accuracy of certain algebraic expressions, particularly in relation to the terms used in the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

issisoccer10
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[SOLVED] Partial Derivatives with Inverse Trig Functions

Homework Statement


Show that u(x,y) and v(x,y) satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations...

\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}

given that u = ln(x^{2} + y^{2})
and that v = 2tan^{-1} (y/x)

Homework Equations


single variable differentials of equations should be in the form of..

\frac{d}{dx} ln (u) = \frac{1}{u} \frac{du}{dx}

\frac{d}{dx} tan^{-1} u = \frac{1}{1+u^{2}} \frac{du}{dx}

The Attempt at a Solution


I would think that the partial derivatives of the above equations would lead from the single differentials, but instead of \frac{du}{dx} there would be \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} or \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} depending on which the question called for. With this reasoning, I thought the left side of the Cauchy-Riemann equation should be..

\frac{2x}{x^{2} + y ^{2}}

and the right side would be...

\frac{2}{1 + (y/x)^{2}} \frac{1}{x}

However, these don't appear to be equal... unless I can't see the simple algebra. Any help would be greatly appreciated..
 
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issisoccer10 said:
\frac{2x}{x^{2} + y ^{2}}

and the right side would be...

\frac{2}{1 + (y/x)^{2}} \frac{1}{x}
\frac{2}{1+\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^2} \times \frac{1}{x}
Distribute through and multply by 1 (\frac{x}{x])...
\frac{2}{x+\frac{y^2}{x}} \times \frac{x}{x}
\frac{2x}{x^2+y^2}
 
in the denominator of your responce you have the term y^{2}/x. Shouldn't the term be y^{2}/x^{2}?
 
\frac{1}{1+\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^2} \times \frac{1}{x}
\frac{1}{\left(1+\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)^2\right) x}
\frac{1}{x + x \times \frac{y^2}{x^2}}
\frac{1}{x + \frac{y^2}{x}}
 
wow... i feel pathetic... thanks again.
 

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