Passing an integral through an infinite sum

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around demonstrating the relationship between the arctangent function and an infinite series representation. The original poster attempts to show that the integral of a specific function can be expressed as an infinite sum, raising concerns about the validity of interchanging the sum and integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the interchangeability of sums and integrals, with some suggesting that it is valid under certain conditions. Others caution against assuming this is always true, referencing specific mathematical theorems.

Discussion Status

The conversation is active, with participants providing insights into the conditions under which the interchange of summation and integration is valid. There is acknowledgment of the need for caution regarding assumptions about uniform convergence and the implications for the original problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of conditions such as uniform convergence when discussing the interchange of limits, sums, and integrals, indicating that these concepts are central to the problem at hand.

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Homework Statement


I want to show that
$$
\tan^{-1}(x)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^{n}}{2n+1}x^{2n+1}.
$$

Homework Equations


I start with
$$
\int\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}dx.
$$

The Attempt at a Solution


I want to be able to do the following:
$$
\int\frac{1}{1+x^{2}}dx=\int\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}(-1)^{n}x^{2n}dx=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\int (-1)^{n}x^{2n}dx
$$
but I am afraid that the infinite sum might create problems. Can anyone take a look? Thanks!
 
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The order of the sum and integral can be switched, since they are both sums, so that's fine.

So it seems that [itex]\frac{1}{1+x^2}[/itex] can be expressed as an infinite geometric series so long as [itex]|x^{2}|\leq 1[/itex].

Where
[itex]\frac{1}{1-r}=\sum_{i=0}^{∞} r^{i}[/itex]
when [itex]|r|\leq 1[/itex]

we can say that

[itex]\frac{1}{1+x^2}=\sum_{i=0}^{∞} (-x^2)^{i}=\sum_{i=0}^{∞} (-1)^{i}(x)^{2i}[/itex]
when [itex]|x^{2}|\leq 1[/itex]

Hope this helps:)
 
jfizzix said:
The order of the sum and integral can be switched, since they are both sums, so that's fine.

They cannot always be switched. Only under certain conditions is that statement valid. While this can be done so here it is bad habit to think the statement as always true.

To reference http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fubini's_theorem
 
Thanks guys! That helps a lot.
 
Have you heard about uniform convergence? Long story short, it allows us to verify if the following relationships actually hold :

$$\int_{a}^{b} \sum_{n=0}^{∞} a_nx^n = \sum_{n=0}^{∞} \int_{a}^{b} a_nx^n$$
$$\frac{d}{dx} \sum_{n=0}^{∞} a_nx^n = \sum_{n=0}^{∞} \frac{d}{dx} a_nx^n$$
$$lim_{x→a} \sum_{n=0}^{∞} a_nx^n = \sum_{n=0}^{∞} lim_{x→a} a_nx^n$$
 

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