I'm just trying to get an understanding of answering PDEs, so wanted to ask what you thought of my answer to this question.
The one-dimensional wave equation is given by the first equation shown in this link;
where Ψ = f(x, t)
Is f(x, t) = exp(x-ivt) a possible solution?
The Attempt at a Solution
∂^2 f/∂x^2 = exp(x-ivt)
∂f/∂t = -iv exp(x-ivt)
Possible if v = -i