Pearson chi-squared test (χ2): differences?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the differences between two types of Pearson chi-squared tests: the "test for fit of a distribution" and the "test of independence." Participants explore the implications of using one test over the other in various contexts, particularly in exam scenarios.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants note that the main differences between the two tests lie in how theoretical values are counted and how degrees of freedom are determined.
  • One participant presents a specific example involving age distribution and questions whether using a "test for fit of distribution" instead of a "test of independence" would significantly impact the results.
  • Another participant suggests that the impact of using one test over the other depends on the specific theoretical distribution mentioned in the problem.
  • A later reply emphasizes that "non-normal" is not a specific enough distribution to assess the differences accurately and suggests that specificity is necessary for meaningful comparison.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the significance of choosing one test over the other, indicating that the discussion remains unresolved regarding the extent of the differences and the conditions under which they matter.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the lack of specificity regarding the theoretical distributions involved and the assumptions that may affect the application of each test.

Drudge
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So, as far as I know, there are two χ2-tests: "test for fit of a distribution" & "Test of independence"

How big of a mistake is it to use the one instead of the other in an exam for example (of course all exams are all different to some degree, but generally)?

The only differences I can really find out is how each test counts the theoretical value(s) and the way in which the degrees of freedom are counted

For example a problem might be as follows:
a random sample from population X is, as a function of age, distributed as follows

10-20
5
21-30
4
31-40
3
40-41
9

And the equivalent theoretical values are: 6, 5, 4, 5

Question:

"Does the sample represent the theoretical distribution?"

So, you would use a "test for fit of distribution", but how much of a difference is it to use a "test of independence"?
 
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Drudge said:
So, you would use a "test for fit of distribution", but how much of a difference is it to use a "test of independence"?

That would depend on what theoretical distribution was stated in the problem.
 
Stephen Tashi said:
That would depend on what theoretical distribution was stated in the problem.

Non normal distribution.
 
"Non-normal" is not a specific distribution. If you really want to know "how much" difference it would make you must be specific about the distribution - and if you are specific then you can calculate the difference yourself.
 

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