Pesky change of variables in integral

w4k4b4lool4
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Hi All,

I've managed to confuse myself with a simple change of variables.

I have an integral of the form:
$$
I = \int_f^{\infty} dt \int_0^1 ds\, t\, F(t(1-s),ts),
$$
where $F(a,b)$ is some well behaved function and $f$ is a positive number. I want to change variables:
$$
x = t(1-s), \qquad y = ts,
$$
in terms of which the integral reads:
$$
I = \int_{x_i}^{x_f} dx \int_{y_i}^{y_f} dy\, F(x,y).
$$
I would naively conclude that:
$$
x_i=y_i=0,\qquad x_f=y_f=\infty,
$$
but this must be wrong because it is independent of f!

My question is: what are the limits of integration in the new variables and why?

Thanks in advance!
Wakabaloola
 
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I suggest you do it one step at a time. First y = ts, so dy = tds, while the y limits become 0 and t. Second step, switch integration order, so t is inner integral. Finally let x = t-y, so dx=dt and the x limits will change accordingly.
 
mathman said:
I suggest you do it one step at a time. First y = ts, so dy = tds, while the y limits become 0 and t. Second step, switch integration order, so t is inner integral. Finally let x = t-y, so dx=dt and the x limits will change accordingly.

So, first step leads to:
$$
I = \int_f^{\infty}dt \int_0^t dy F(t-y,y).
$$
How can I then switch the integration order (given that the y integral has t-dependent limits)?

Thanks for your response!
 
OK, I think I figured it out.

The region of integration in the (t,s) variables is the rectangle specified by the four vertices (f,0), (f,1), (L,1) and (L,0), with L->Infinity.

In the new variables (x,y), the region of of integration is a trapezoidal specified by four vertices (f,0), (0,f), (0,L) and (L,0), which (taking L->Infinity) can equivalently be described as the area of the first quadrant of the (x,y) plane less the area associated to a triangle with vertices (0,0), (0,f) and (f,0). That is,
$$
I = \int_0^{\infty}dx \int_0^{\infty}dy \,F(x,y) - \int_0^f dx\int_0^{f-x}dy\, F(x,y)
$$
 
mathman said:
I suggest you do it one step at a time. First y = ts, so dy = tds
You are treating t as a constant here which is not true.

, while the y limits become 0 and t. Second step, switch integration order, so t is inner integral. Finally let x = t-y, so dx=dt and the x limits will change accordingly.
You need, instead, the "Jacobian".
With x= t(1- s), y= st, t= x+ y and s= y/(x+ y).

dsdt= \left|\begin{array}{cc}\frac{\partial s}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial s}{\partial y} \\ \frac{\partial t}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial t}{\partial y}\end{array}\right|dxdy= \left|\begin{array}{cc} y & x+ 2y \\ 1 & 1 \end{array}\right|dxdy= -(x+y)dxdy
 
HallsofIvy said:
You are treating t as a constant here which is not true.


You need, instead, the "Jacobian".
With x= t(1- s), y= st, t= x+ y and s= y/(x+ y).

dsdt= \left|\begin{array}{cc}\frac{\partial s}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial s}{\partial y} \\ \frac{\partial t}{\partial x} & \frac{\partial t}{\partial y}\end{array}\right|dxdy= \left|\begin{array}{cc} y & x+ 2y \\ 1 & 1 \end{array}\right|dxdy= -(x+y)dxdy

I find instead:
$$
dx\wedge dy = (dt(1-s)-tds)\wedge (tds+sdt) = (1-s)t dt\wedge ds-st ds\wedge dt = tds\wedge dt
$$
 
You just made a small mistake with the combining of terms here.

(1-s)t \; dt \wedge ds - st \; ds \wedge dt = (t - st + st) \; dt \wedge ds = t \; dt \wedge ds = - t \; ds \wedge dt

Nevertheless, you already have the integral in terms of ds \wedge dt. You'll have to go backwards to find it in terms of dx \wedge dy.
 
what mistake did I make, sorry I don't see it!
 
When you multiplied out (1-s)t \; dt \wedge ds you somehow got a term that was t \; ds \wedge dt instead of t \; dt \wedge ds. This caused your result to be off by a factor of -1.
 
  • #10
Oh yes, I see, thanks! (I may be dyslexic)
 
  • #11
Thanks to all who thought about this question!
I am satisfied with the answer in post n.4.
Wakabaloola
 

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