- #1
ylem
- 32
- 1
Hello! I'm afraid I've asked this before, a while ago, but I still don't completely understand. It's not a homework question as such, but I thought this might be an appropriate place to put it.
Why is it that pions decay via pi^+ --> mu^+ + antimuon neutrino 98% of the time and only to a positron and anti electron neutrino 2% of the time.
I understand it is something to do with helicity (as neutrinos are not chiral, as they have mass) and something to do with a spin flip which is dependent on the mass, and since a muon has a larger mass, this is why it's favoured. But everyone I asked (even professors) seem to give a description that is a bit fuzzy.
Any help would be appreciated a lot. :-)
Samantha
Homework Statement
Why is it that pions decay via pi^+ --> mu^+ + antimuon neutrino 98% of the time and only to a positron and anti electron neutrino 2% of the time.
The Attempt at a Solution
I understand it is something to do with helicity (as neutrinos are not chiral, as they have mass) and something to do with a spin flip which is dependent on the mass, and since a muon has a larger mass, this is why it's favoured. But everyone I asked (even professors) seem to give a description that is a bit fuzzy.
Any help would be appreciated a lot. :-)
Samantha