Apr 16, 2006 #1 Hootenanny Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Gold Member Messages 9,621 Reaction score 9 I just want to check something I'm not sure on. If at point P; f'(x) = 0 and f''(x) = 0 and f'''(x) \neq 0 can we definatly say that point P is a point of inflection? Regards, ~Hoot
I just want to check something I'm not sure on. If at point P; f'(x) = 0 and f''(x) = 0 and f'''(x) \neq 0 can we definatly say that point P is a point of inflection? Regards, ~Hoot
Apr 16, 2006 #2 Hootenanny Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Gold Member Messages 9,621 Reaction score 9 "bump"
Apr 16, 2006 #3 Zurtex Science Advisor Homework Helper Messages 1,118 Reaction score 1 That depends how you define "point of inflection", some times that's just how it is defined. Easy way to test, if you consider x5 to be a point of inflection at x=0 then your test fails. However if you don't consider it to be a point of inflection then your test is fine. Last edited: Apr 16, 2006
That depends how you define "point of inflection", some times that's just how it is defined. Easy way to test, if you consider x5 to be a point of inflection at x=0 then your test fails. However if you don't consider it to be a point of inflection then your test is fine.
Apr 16, 2006 #4 Hootenanny Staff Emeritus Science Advisor Gold Member Messages 9,621 Reaction score 9 Thank you Zurtex, extremely helpful. Regards, ~Hoot