Point P is a point of inflection?

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I just want to check something I'm not sure on. If at point P; f'(x) = 0 and f''(x) = 0 and f'''(x) \neq 0 can we definatly say that point P is a point of inflection?

Regards,
~Hoot
 
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"bump" o:)
 
That depends how you define "point of inflection", some times that's just how it is defined.

Easy way to test, if you consider x5 to be a point of inflection at x=0 then your test fails.

However if you don't consider it to be a point of inflection then your test is fine.
 
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Thank you Zurtex, extremely helpful.

Regards,
~Hoot
 
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