I Pointwise and Uniform Convergence

Silviu
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Hello! Can someone explain to me in an intuitive way the difference between pointwise and uniform convergence of a series of complex functions ##f_n(z)##? Form what I understand, the difference is that when choosing an "N" such that for all ##n \ge N## something is less than ##\epsilon##, in the case of uniform convergence N can't depend on z but in the case of pointwise convergence it can. I saw an example for the function ##f_n(z)=z^n## which has uniform convergence if the domain is ##D_{[0,a]}## with ##a<1##, but has pointwise convergence for ##a=1##. I understand that the proofs involves different approaches and this is why they have different types of convergence, but in the end they converge to the same function ##f(z)=0##. So how is the uniform convergence stronger than the other one (I know that pointwise is implied by uniform but not the other way around, but this still doesn't really give me a clear understanding). Thank you!
 
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If you have a function ##f_n (x) = x^n## on the half-open interval ##[0,1[##, the sequence ##f_1 (a),f_2 (a), f_3 (a), \dots## will approach zero no matter what the number ##a\in [0,1[## is, but for any given ##n##, no matter how large, there is some number ##x\in [0,1[## for which ##f_n (x) = 0.5## or any number in the interval ##[0,1[##. So you can't limit the value of ##f_n (x)## to some interval ##[0,c]## where ##c< 1## by any finite choice of ##n##.
 
The main thing about uniform convergence that I know is that the uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous. The point wise limit may not be continuous.
 
Silviu said:
Hello! Can someone explain to me in an intuitive way the difference between pointwise and uniform convergence of a complex function ##f(z)##? Form what I understand, the difference is that when choosing an "N" such that for all ##n \ge N## something is less than ##\epsilon##,

Are you talking about uniform convergence "of a complex function"? - or uniform convergence of a sequence of functions? It would be best to ask a precise question, even if you want an intuitive explanation.
 
Stephen Tashi said:
Are you talking about uniform convergence "of a complex function"? - or uniform convergence of a sequence of functions? It would be best to ask a precise question, even if you want an intuitive explanation.
Sorry, I meant series of functions (anyway for a single function I guess it doesn't make a difference as there is no "n" to take the limit of, just z)
 
Silviu said:
Sorry, I meant series of functions
I think you mean "sequence" of functions.

(anyway for a single function I guess it doesn't make a difference as there is no "n" to take the limit of, just z)

I don't what "it" refers to.

Do you understand the concept of uniform convergence for a sequence of real valued functions of real variable?
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.

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