Potential inside of chrged non-conductive sphere

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A uniformly charged non-conductive sphere's potential at a distance r from its center (where r<R) is derived as V=q(3*R^2-r^2)/(8*PI*e0*R^3). The electric field inside the sphere is expressed as E(r)=q*r/(4*PI*e0*R^3), and the potential is calculated by integrating the electric field. The integration must be performed from infinity to r to avoid including contributions from inside the Gaussian surface. The final formula confirms the relationship between charge distribution and electric potential within the sphere. The discussion emphasizes the importance of correct integration limits in deriving the potential.
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Homework Statement


A charge is distributed uniformly throughout a non-conducting spherical volume of radius R. Show, that the potential at distance r from center (r<R) is given by:
V=q(3*R^2-r^2)/(8*PI*e0*R^3)

Homework Equations


From Gauss low:
E(r)=q*r/(4*PI*e0*R^3)

E(r)=-grad(V(r))

The Attempt at a Solution


After integrating I got:
V(r)=-q*R^2/(8*PI*e0*R^3)
which is in fact stupid, as it yields V=0 at r=0. So probably I integrated with wrong limits.
How to obtain correct formula?
 
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I made a small mistake in typing the formula on V that I obtained. It should be:
V(r)=-q*r^2/(8*PI*e0*R^3)
 
And R = radius of gaussian surface
r = radius of your sphere?
please be precise.
 
Never mind, I've solved it.

You have two different functions for the electric field.
If r > R, E = \frac{kQ}{r^2} where k = \frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0}
if r < R, E = \frac{kQr}{R^3}

so V of r < R will be the negative integral of r > R from R to infinity plus the negative integral of r < R from r to R.

V = - \int^{R}_{\infty} \frac{kQ}{r^2}dr - \int^{r}_{R} \frac{kQr}{R^3}dr

V = \frac{kR}{R} - \frac{kR}{2R^3}(r^2-R^2) = \frac{2kQR^2}{2R^3} + \frac{kQR^2}{2R^3} - \frac{kQr^2}{2R^3} = \frac{kQ(3R^2 - r^2)}{2R^3}

subbing k back in = \frac{Q(3R^2 - r^2)}{8 \pi \epsilon_0 R^3}

phew.. Hope there are no errors in that haha. I have been up for far too many consecutive hours..
 
Last edited:
Thank you very much for the reply!
I have just one more question: why should I integrate from infinity to zero, not from zero to infinity?
 
Sorry again: from inf to r not from r to inf, I meant.
 
One more correction:
Why should I integrate from infinity to r not from zero to r?
I hope, now it's ok...
 
because if we integrated from zero to r, that would give us V for inside the gaussian surface as well as inside the sphere.

Sorry for the late reply I was away for sometime.
 
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