wasia
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I am slightly confused about the definition of principle value. If we have an integral
\int 1/z,
where the integration from -\infty to \infty is implied, then by Cauchy integral theorem we know that the principle value
P \int 1/z=i\pi.
However, I would like to write down this principle value explicitly. My best shot is
\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow0}\lim_{R\rightarrow\infty}\int_{-R}^{-\epsilon}1/z+\int_{\epsilon}^{R}1/z.
Assuming that this is correct (is it?) I can (can I?) calculate the integrals first and take limits afterwards. I get
\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow0}\lim_{R\rightarrow\infty} \ln\left(-\frac{\epsilon}{\epsilon}\right) + \ln\left(-\frac{R}{R}\right)=2\ln(-1)=0.
Can you tell me what am I doing wrong?
\int 1/z,
where the integration from -\infty to \infty is implied, then by Cauchy integral theorem we know that the principle value
P \int 1/z=i\pi.
However, I would like to write down this principle value explicitly. My best shot is
\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow0}\lim_{R\rightarrow\infty}\int_{-R}^{-\epsilon}1/z+\int_{\epsilon}^{R}1/z.
Assuming that this is correct (is it?) I can (can I?) calculate the integrals first and take limits afterwards. I get
\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow0}\lim_{R\rightarrow\infty} \ln\left(-\frac{\epsilon}{\epsilon}\right) + \ln\left(-\frac{R}{R}\right)=2\ln(-1)=0.
Can you tell me what am I doing wrong?