How Does the Principle of Virtual Work Apply to Particle Equilibrium?

AI Thread Summary
The Principle of Virtual Work is essential for understanding particle equilibrium, stating that the sum of the virtual work done by applied forces and constraint forces equals zero in a system at rest. Virtual displacements occur without time intervals and differ from normal displacements, focusing on infinitesimal changes in particle coordinates. In equilibrium, the applied forces and constraint forces balance out, leading to the conclusion that constraint forces do no work. A practical example is a particle constrained to move on a sphere, where the constraint force is perpendicular to the surface, resulting in no work done during virtual displacements. This principle is crucial for finding equilibrium positions in mechanical systems.
cosmicraj
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
I could not understand the Principle of virtual work.
Suppose we have two (x,y,t) [at two different points].By principle of least action we will get a trajectory such that it minimize lagrangian.
Does the principle of virtual work say that it will vary the path a little but having the same end points?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrangian_mechanics

Quote: "Start with D'Alembert's principle for the virtual work of applied forces, \mathbf{F}_i, and inertial forces on a three dimensional accelerating system of n particles, i, whose motion is consistent with its constraints"
 
For understanding D alembert's pinciple. one should know the principle of virtual work.
 
i think It is not difficult as people have made it...
The simple thing is that the use of this principle is to find the equilibrium position of anybody or set of particles.
 
Thanx to all and please tell me more if required...
 
I don't understand well enough to put this in the context of what you are talking about. But...

A virtual displacement is when you change the coordinates of the particles by an infinitesimal distance. This is different from a normal displacement in that this displacement does not take place over an time interval dt.

Now, if you have a system of particles in equilibrium, then \sum_i F_i \cdot \delta r_i = 0, because each F_i = 0.

The principle of virtual work says that forces of constraint do no work. So \sum_i F^{constraint}_i \cdot \delta r_i = 0 and therefore \sum_i F^{applied}_i \cdot \delta r_i = 0 as F_i = F^{constraint}_i + F^{applied}_i.

A colloquial way to see the validity of this is to imagine a particle constrained to travel on a sphere. The force of constraint will be perpendicular to the surface while the virtual displacement will be tangent to the surface, so their dot product is 0.
 
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...

Similar threads

Back
Top