Probability distribution without a mean?

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I don't see how this is possible? how can you have a distrubution with no mean?
My professor says there is, but i don't get it...
 
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Exercise: find a series

a_1+a_2+...

that has a finite sum (and hence is can be made to have sum 1, and be a prob distribution on N) but where a_1+2a_2+3a_3+... is not finite (so there isn't a mean).

And there are less contrived examples too.
 
Simple example a_k=1/k^2
 
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I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.
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