- #1
catsarebad
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okay so I'm having a bit hard time understanding this:
i get that probability of finding a particle in between [a,b] is integral (over a,b) (Ψ(x,t)*)Ψ(x,t) dx.
however, can it also be integral (over a,b) of (Ψ(x,0)*)Ψ(x,0) dx?
if not, why?
i saw an example where Ψ(x,0) was given and problem asked user to find prob between some interval. i noticed that the example found Ψ(x,t) first (using usual unitary operator e^(-ikE/h)). i don't understand why it can't be found right away from Ψ(x,0).
thanks a bunch!
i get that probability of finding a particle in between [a,b] is integral (over a,b) (Ψ(x,t)*)Ψ(x,t) dx.
however, can it also be integral (over a,b) of (Ψ(x,0)*)Ψ(x,0) dx?
if not, why?
i saw an example where Ψ(x,0) was given and problem asked user to find prob between some interval. i noticed that the example found Ψ(x,t) first (using usual unitary operator e^(-ikE/h)). i don't understand why it can't be found right away from Ψ(x,0).
thanks a bunch!