Probability that sum of two random variables is greater than 1

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The discussion focuses on calculating the probability P(X_1 + X_2 >= 1) for two random variables X_1 and X_2, where X_1 is chosen from (0,1) and X_2 from (0,X_1). Initial attempts to evaluate the integral yield incorrect results, including zero and undefined values. Participants suggest conditioning on X_1 and using the joint density to find the correct integration limits. A key point is that the initial integral setup incorrectly covers more than the sample space, leading to confusion. Clarifying the integration limits and visualizing the sample space is essential for correctly solving the problem.
rayge
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Homework Statement



Let us choose at random a point from the interval (0,1) and let the random variable X_1 be equal to the number which corresponds to that point. Then choose a point at random from the interval (0,x_1), where x_1 is the experimental value of X_1; and let the random variable X_2 be equal to the number which corresponds to this point.

Compute P(X_1 + X_2 >= 1)

Homework Equations


The joint pdf is 1/x_1 , 0<x_2<x_1<1

The Attempt at a Solution


Many. For one, set Y=X_1+X_2. Then find P(Y>=1). Then evaluate \int_0^1\int_{1-x_2}^1 1/x_1 dx_1dx_2. Evaluating this integral gives me zero.

The other solutions I come up with end up giving me ln(0), which is undefined. Any suggestions on how to approach this?
 
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How can you get zero from the integral? 1/x_1 is always positive, the result cannot be zero.
I don't see how you consider the sum in this integral.

for a given x_1, what is the probability that the sum is larger than 1?
With this probability, you can use a one-dimensional integral to get the answer.
 
rayge said:

Homework Statement



Let us choose at random a point from the interval (0,1) and let the random variable X_1 be equal to the number which corresponds to that point. Then choose a point at random from the interval (0,x_1), where x_1 is the experimental value of X_1; and let the random variable X_2 be equal to the number which corresponds to this point.

Compute P(X_1 + X_2 >= 1)

Homework Equations


The joint pdf is 1/x_1 , 0<x_2<x_1<1

The Attempt at a Solution


Many. For one, set Y=X_1+X_2. Then find P(Y>=1). Then evaluate \int_0^1\int_{1-x_2}^1 1/x_1 dx_1dx_2. Evaluating this integral gives me zero.

The other solutions I come up with end up giving me ln(0), which is undefined. Any suggestions on how to approach this?

You could use a conditioning argument, where you condition on ##x_1##. In other words, find ##P(X_1+X_2 \geq 1|X_1 = x_1)##, etc.

Alternatively, you can use the joint density, but you need to apply the correct integration. To do that, first draw a picture to help you get the region of integration correctly
 
rayge said:

The Attempt at a Solution


Many. For one, set Y=X_1+X_2. Then find P(Y>=1). Then evaluate \int_0^1\int_{1-x_2}^1 1/x_1 dx_1dx_2. Evaluating this integral gives me zero.
As has been noted, that integral does not evaluate to zero. (It evaluates to one.)

Much more importantly, that is the wrong integral. Look what happens when x2 is, for example, 3/4. The integration limits for x1 are 1/4 to 1. When x1 is 1/4, the maximum possible value for x2 is 1/4. An x2 value of 3/4 is not possible.

Bottom line: Your integral covers more than the sample space.

If you want to use this approach, I suggest drawing a picture. You want the portion of the sample space for which x1+x2≥1.
 
Thanks a lot for the help everyone. Once I thought carefully about summing all values of x_1, the proper limits of the integrals was a lot more clear.
 
Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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